92 C GS mcq Test questions 23 Feb
Qts 1. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?
1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
2. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.
3. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.C
Explanation
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment made radical provisions with respect to revitalizing Panchayati Raj Institutions. It added various provisions in Articles 243 to 243 (0) in part IX of the Constitution. The Act also added Eleventh Schedule in the Constitution, which includes 29 subjects assigned to Panchayats.
In order to ensure free, timely and fair elections of Panchayats at all levels, the Act provides for the establishment of al separate Election Commission in each State, which shall be independent of the control of the state government. Hence, (2) is a correct statement.
In order to ensure the availability of adequate financial resources to the Panchayats, the Act makes the provision for the establishment of State Finance Commission in each State. The members of the Commission shall be appointed by the Governor of the state concerned. The Commission shall recommend the principles which shall govern the distribution of proceeds of taxes and duties between the States and the Panchayats and grant-in-aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State. Hence (3) is also correct.
District Planning Committee (DPC) is the committee created as per article 243ZD of the Constitution of India at the district level for planning at the district and below. The Committee in each district should consolidate the plans prepared by the Panchayats and the Municipalities in the district and prepare a draft development plan for the district. This article was inserted by the 74th Amendment Act. Hence, (1) is not a correct statement.
Qts2 . The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from
(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
Ans. (b)
Explanation
Article 283 in The Constitution Of India 1949 Custody, etc of Consolidated Funds, Contingency Funds and moneys credited to the public accounts
(1) The custody of the Consolidated Fund of India and the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into such Funds, the withdrawal of moneys therefrom, the custody of public moneys other than those credited to such Funds received by or on behalf of the Government of India, their payment into the public account of India and the withdrawal of moneys from such account and all other matters connected with or ancillary to matters aforesaid shall be regulated by law made by Parliament, and, until provision in that behalf is so made, shall be regulated by rules made by the President
Qts3. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha,
(a) The Budget is modified and presented again
(b) The Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
(c) The union Finance Minister is asked to resign
(d) The Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers
Ans. (d)
Explanation
The Union Budget of India, referred to as the Annual Financial Statement in Article 112 of the Constitution of India, is the annual budget of the Republic of India, presented each year on the last working day of February by the Finance Minister of India in Parliament. The budget has to be passed by the House before it can come into effect on April 1, the start of India's financial year.
In case, if a policy statement like Annual Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha, then it is equivalent to losing vote of confidence of the ruling party or it is same as passing of no- confidence motion. In this case, the government i.e. Prime Minister should resign.
Qts4. Under the constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?
(a) To vote in public elections
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To Safeguard public property
(d) To abide by the constitution and respect its ideals
Ans. (a)
Explanation
The following are the Fundamental Duties prescribed by the Constitution of the nation under PART [IV-A] to its every citizen:
(a) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
(b) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
(c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
(d) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
(e) To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
(f) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
(g) To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures.
(h) To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
(i) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
(j) To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement.
Qts5. With reference to the Finance Commission of
India, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
(b) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public sector Undertakings
(c) It ensures transparency in financial administration CAG
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
Ans. (d)
Explanation
The Finance Commission shall make recommendations as the following matters, namely :-
(i) the distribution between the Union and the States the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be divided between them under Chapter I Part XII of the Constitution and the allocation between the States the respective shares of such proceeds;
(ii) the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid the revenues of the States out of the Consolidate Fund of India and the sums to be paid to the State which are in need of assistance by way of grants-in-aid of their revenues under article 275 of the Constitution for purposes other than those specified in the provisos to clause (1) of that article; and
(iii) the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State.
Qts 6. Consider the following statements:
In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee
1. Is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India.
2 Prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.
3. Has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. A
Explanation
As per the Constitution 74th Amendment Act, 1992, there is a mandatory provision for constitution of Metropolitan Planning Committee in all metropolitan areas by State governments.
Article 243ZE. Committee for Metropolitan planning. (1) There shall be constituted in every Metropolitan area a Metropolitan Planning Committee to prepare a draft development plan for the Metropolitan area as a whole.
Hence, both statements (1) and (2) are correct.
Statement (3) is not correct, as it is not the sole authority for implementing government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area. For example, in Delhi, there are various other agencies as well for implementing government Sponsored schemes such as New Delhi Municipal Corporation, Delhi Development Authority.
Qts7 . What is the difference between "vote-on-account" and "interim budget" ?
1. The provision of a vote-on-account is used by regular Government, while an interim budget is provision used by a caretaker Government.
2. A vote-on-account only deals with the expenditure in Government's budget while an interim budget includes both expenditure an receipts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans (b)
Explanation
Every year on the last working day of February, the Government presents the annual Budget for the next financial year. However, if it is an election year the government would instead present a vote on account (VOA) or an interim budget. During an election year it is not practical for the ruling government or for the new government taking charge after the elections to prepare or debate on the full budget and pass it before the new financial year begins.
Hence, the outgoing government would announce an interim budget or vote on account in February which will be followed by a full budget by the new government in a few months time after the elections.
Vote-on-accounts: Literally, a vote on the accounts of the Government of India. No money can be spent by the government without the Parliament approving it; so after the government presents the accounts of expenditure and income, the Parliament approves it. Only after this does the government get to spend the money.
A vote-on-account deals only with the expenditure side of the government's budget, an interim Budget is a complete set of accounts, including both expenditure and receipts.
Qts 8. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha ?
1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting license or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.
Which one of the statement given above is /are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans b
Explanation
The Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 is an Act to provide for the extension of the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats to the Scheduled Areas.
Some provisions of this act include :Section 4(k) the recommendations of the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level shall be made mandatory prior to grant of prospecting licence or mining lease for minor minerals in the Scheduled Areas. Hence option 3 is not correct, as recommendations is necessary for minor minerals only.
Section 4(m) While endowing Panchayats in the Scheduled Areas with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self-government, a State Legislature shall ensure that the Panchayats at the appropriate level and the Gram Sabha are endowed specially with-
(i) the power to enforce prohibition or to regulate or restrict the sale and consumption of any intoxicant;
(ii) the ownership of minor forest produce;
(iii) the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas and to take appropriate action to restore any unlawfully alienated land of a Scheduled Tribe.
Hence both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Qts 9. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is
(a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
(b) to let opposition members collect information from the ministers
(c) to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
(d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members
Ans.(a)
Explanation
The primary object of an adjournment motion is to draw the attention of the House to a recent matter of urgent public importance having serious consequences and in regard to which a motion or a resolution with proper notice will be too late. The matter proposed to be raised should be of such a character that something very grave which affects the whole country and its security has happened and the House is required to pay its attention immediately by interrupting the normal business of the House.
The adjournment motion is thus an extraordinary procedure which, if admitted, leads to setting aside the normal business of the House for discussing a definite matter of urgent public importance.
The subject matter of the motion must have a direct or indirect relation to the conduct or default on the part of the Union Government and must precisely pin-point the failure of the Government of India in the performance of its duties in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution and Law. A matter which falls within the jurisdiction of a State Government is inadmissible, but a matter concerning the constitutional developments in a State or atrocities on the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections of the society which bring the Union Government into picture may be considered for admission on merits. The refusal to give his consent is in the absolute discretion of the Chair and he is not bound to give any reasons therefor.
Qts 10. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?
1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21
2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1)
3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
Explanation A
National Green Tribunal Act (NGT) was established in 2010, under India's constitutional provision of Article 21 which assures the citizens of India, the right to a healthy environment. The tribunal itself, is a special fast-track court to handle the expeditious disposal of the cases pertaining to environmental issues.
There lies many reasons behind the setting up of this tribunal. After India's move with Carbon credits, such tribunal may play a vital role in ensuring the control of emissions and maintaining the desired levels. This is the first body of its kind that is required by its parent statute to apply the "polluter pays" principle and the principle of sustainable development. One of the major scheme of Ministry of Tribal Affairs is to provide grants given to States/UTs, under the first proviso to article 275(1) of the Constitution to meet the costs of projects for tribal development and for raising the level of administration of Scheduled Area therein on par with the rest of the State/UT. Part of the funds are utilized for setting up of Residential Schools for providing quality education to tribal students. Hence option 2 is not correct. Option 3 is also not correct as Gram Sabhas has nothing to do with National Green Tribunal Act.
Qts 11. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:
1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
2. Organizing village Panchayats
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles Source that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy ?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
Explanation-
Part IV (Article 36-51) of the Constitution contains the directive principles of state policy. The principles reflect a unique mixture of humanitarian, socialist percepts, Gandhian ideals and democratic socialism. Though non-justiciable, they constitute the fundamental principles of governance.
Gandhian Principles
Article 40: State shall organize village panchayat as unit of self-government.
Article 43: State shall try to promote cottage industries.
Article 46: State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interests at the weaker sections of the peoples: SC and ST.
Article 45: State shall provide compulsory primary education for the children upto 14 years.
Article 47: State shall try to secure the improvement of public health and the prohibition of intoxicating drinks and drugs.
Article 48: State shall preserve and improve the breeds and prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other cows and drought cattle.
Qts12. Consider the following statements:
1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Ans d
Explanation
Union Territory of Delhi (3 members) and Puducherry (2 members) are represented in the Rajya Sabha. Hence 1 is not correct.
It is within the purview of the Election Commission of India to adjudicate the election disputes. Hence 2 is not correct.
According to the Constitutioin of India, the Parliament consists of the President, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. Hence 3 is also not correct.
Qts 13.with reference to consumers' rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans c
Explanation
On August 2011, Consumers have given the power to take adulterators of food products to task as the first time in the history of food inspection in India, buyers have been empowered to take samples, get those tested and lodge complaints for prosecution of accused. Hence statement 1 is correct.
When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, the complainant is required to pay a nominal amount of fee to the court as directed by the Central Government. Hence option 2 is not correct.
In case of death of a consumer, his legal heir or representative, can file a complaint in writing alleging that an unfair trade practice or a restrictive trade practice has been adopted by any trader or service provider. Hence option 3 is correct.
Qts14. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements :
1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/ her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Ans b
Explanation
The speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected from the members of the Lok Sabha. Hence 2 is wrong.
The speaker hold the office during the life of the house, or till he is removed. Hence 1 is wrong.
The office of the speaker may terminate in any of the following ways:
(i) By his ceasing to be a member of the house.
(ii) By resignation in writing, addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
(iii) By removal from office by a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the House (Article 94)
Qts 15. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
4. A dispute between two or more States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Explanation.
Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is three fold:
(i) Original,
(ii) Appellate and
(iii) Advisory.
Disputes between different States of the Union or between Union and any State is within exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (Article 13).
Qts 16. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?
(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services
(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement
(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners
Ans. (b)
Explanation
Rajya Sabha being a federal chamber enjoys certain special powers under the Constitution. All the subjects/areas regarding legislation have been divided into three Lists - Union List, State List and concurrent List. Union and State Lists are mutually exclusive - one cannot legislate on a matter placed in the sphere of the other. However, if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting saying that it is "necessary or expedient in the national interest" that Parliament should make a law on a matter enumerated in the State List, Parliament becomes empowered to make a law on the subject specified in the resolution, for the whole or any part of the territory of India. Such a resolution remains in force for a maximum period of one year but this period can be extended by one year at a time by passing a similar resolution further.
If Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to create one or more All India Services common to the Union and the States, Parliament becomes empowered to create by law such services.
Qts 17. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?
1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament
2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote- on-account
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans. (a)
Explanation
Constitutional Provision for Parliamentary Control over Public Purse
Article 266
All revenues and receipts of government are to go to a 'Consolidated Fund' and moneys can be withdrawn from the 'Fund' only in accordance with laws passed by Parliament.
Article 112
President to place Annual Financial statement before Parliament every financial year.
Charged and voted estimates of expenditure to be shown separately.
Expenditure on revenue account to be shown as distinct from other expenditure.
Article 113
Charged expenditure not to be submitted to the vote of Parlia ment.
Expenditure of estimates to be submitted in the form of demands for Grants to Parliament for its assessment.
Prior recommendation of President necessary for placing demand for Grants Article 114.
Withdrawal of moneys from the Consolidated Fund only after pass- ing of the Appropriation Bill Article 115
Provision of supplementary, additional or excess grants.Article 116
Provision of vote on account, vote on credit and exceptional grants
Article 117 Finance Bill to be introduced in the Parliament with the recommen- dation of the President of India
Qts 18. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?
1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans. (d)
Explanation A
The Preamble of the Constitution of India declares the concept of justice, equality of status and opportunity and the dignity of the individual. At the same time when we are talking about the education provisions the Constitution of India consists of following provisions which are having a bearing on education:
Fundamental Rights [Part III]
Directive Principles of State Policy [Part IV]
Part IV of the Constitution of India has some provisions which are in connection with the topic education directly or indirectly.
They are as follows:
Article 37 on application of the principles contained in this Part
Article38 :State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people
Article39 :Certain principles of policy to be followed by the State
Article41 :Right to work, to education and to public assis- tance in certain cases
Article45 Provision for free and compulsory education for children[2] Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years Article46 :Promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections
Article47:Duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health
Fundamental Duties [Part IV A]
Rural (Panchayati Raj) & Urban (Municipal) Local Bodies [Part IX & Part IX A]: [A]: Urban and local bodies helps in the implementa- tion of the schemes and programmes related to the govern- ment. Fifth and Sixth Schedule
Seventh Schedule: In Seventh Schedule, the subjects under State, Centre and the Concurrent Lists are mentioned. Education comes under the concurrent list. Hence, Centre and State Governments can make schemes relating to education.Centre-State Relations [Part XI]
The 5th Schedule pertaining to the administration and control of Schedule Areas and Scheduled Tribes and the 6th Schedule pertaining to administration of tribal areas are not applicable to the state of J&K.
Qts 19. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) ?
1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programs by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans c
Explanation
The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is an authority, established by the Constitution of India under Chapter V, who audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government. The CAG is also the external auditor of government-owned companies. The reports of the CAG are taken into consideration by the Public Accounts Committees, which are special committees in the Parliament of India and the state legislatures.
CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the parliament when the president of India declares national emergency/ financial emergency2-CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the PAC/3-Information form CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances. 4-While dealing with audit and accounting of govt. comp
Qts20. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/ her appointment
(a) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months
(b) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
(c) must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
(d) must be a member of the Lok Sabha
Ans. (a)
Explanation
From Article 84 of the Constitution of India, which sets the principal qualifications for member of Parliament, and Article 75 of the Constitution of Iridia, which sets the qualifications for the minister in the Union Council of Minister, and the argument that the position of Prime Minister has beem described as 'first among equals', [13] we can describe following qualifications for the Prime Minister of India. A Prime Minister must be a citizen of India. should be a member of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. I a person elected prime minister is neither a member o the Lok Sabha nor Rajya Sabha, then he must become a member of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha within six months. of above 25 years of age (in the case of a seat in th Lok Sabha) or above 30 years of age (in the case of seat in the Rajya Sabha).
A person shall not be eligible for election as Prime Ministe if he holds any office of profit under the Government of Indi or the Government of any State or under any local or othe authority subject to the control of any of the sai Governments.
Qts 21. Consider the following statements:
Atmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana (ABRY)
1.It is under Ministry of Labour and Employment
2.Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana (ABRY) was launched with effect from 1st October, 2020 as part of Atmanirbhar Bharat package 3.0 to incentivize employers for creation of new employment along with social security benefits and restoration of loss of employment during Covid-19 pandemic.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans A
Qts 22 Consider the following statements:
Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY)
1.It is under Ministry of Labour and Employment
2.Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY) was launched with effect from 1.4.2016 to incentivise employers for creation of new employment.
3. The beneficiaries registered upto 31st March, 2019 will continue to receive the benefit for 3 years from the date of registration under the scheme i.e. upto 31st March, 2022.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 , 2, 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans A