111. 'Economic Justice', as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution, has been provided in the
(a) Preamble and Fundamental Rights
(b) Preamble and Directive Principles
(c) Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
(d) Preamble, Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
Ans d
112. A political party is recognised as a national party
(a) When it contests elections in all the States of the country.
(b) When it secures at least five per cent of the total votes cast in a national election.
(c) If it captures power at least in three States.
(d) If it is recognised as a political party in four or more States
Ans d
113. The allocation of seats for each State in the present Lok Sabha is based on the
(a) 1951 census
(b) 1961 census
(c) 1971 census
(d) 1981 census
Ans c
114. Who among the following have a right to vote in the Vice-Presidential election but not in the Presidential election?
(a) Ministers who are not members of either House of the Parliament
(b) Elected members of the Upper Houses of the States
(c) Nominated members of the Parliament
(d) Members of the Parliament who abstain from all meetings of the House for a period of sixty days without permission of the House
Ans c
115. Who among the following has the right to speak and otherwise take part in the proceedings of either House of the Parliament and to be a member of any Parliamentary Committee in India but is not entitled to vote?
(a) The Chief Election Commissioner
(b) The Comptroller and Auditor General
(c) The Chairman of the Finance Commission
(d) The Attorney General
Ans d
116. Which of the following is/are true of bonded labour?
1. It is forced employment in consideration of an advance or interest payment
2. It is employment arising out of any customary or social or hereditary obligation or by reason of birth in any caste or community involved in pledging labour
3. It is for any economic consideration involving loss of freedom of contract leading to forced employment
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
Ans a
117. Assertion (A): The Indian Constitution closely follows the British Parliamentary model.
Reason (R): In India the Upper House of the Parliament has judicial powers.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans c
118. In a political party of 36 members, the minimum number of members needed to split for disqualifying the original political party as per Anti- Defection Law should be
(a) 9
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 24
Ans b
119. In the estimation of expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, the Parliament has
(a) No power to discuss.
(b) Full power to discuss.
(c) Full power to discuss during financial emergency.
(d) None of the above
Ans c
120. If the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly decides to resign, he should submit his resignation to the
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Governor
(c) Judge of the High Court
(d) Deputy Speaker
Ans d
121. Absolute majority means per cent of votes.
(a) 50
(c) 75
(b) 66
(d) 80
Ans a
122. Cognizable offence refers to an offence where
(a) Arrests can be made without warrant.
(b) Arrests can be made with warrant.
(c) It is under the jurisdiction of a court.
(d) Police can register a case without formal complaint
Ans d
123. No money bill can be introduced in the legislative assembly without the recommendations of the
(a) Speaker
(b) Governor
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Finance Minister
Ans A
124. The 42nd Amendment to the Indian Constitution is notable because it gives
(a) Primacy to Fundamental Rights over Directive Principles
(b) Primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights
(c) Special treatment to Jammu & Kashmir
(d) Special treatment to Sikkim
Ans b
125. Which among the following is not a part of electoral reforms?
(a) Registration of political parties
(b) Disqualifying the offenders
(c) Installation of electronic voting machines
(d) Appointment of the Election Commissioner
Ans d
126. Assertion (A): Finance Commission aims to safeguard the fiscal autonomy of the States.
Reason (R): Finance Commission is constituted every fifth year.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans a
127. Consider the following statements regarding "booth capturing" in an election:
1. It has been defined in the Constitution of India after the 61st Amendment.
2. It includes the seizure of and taking possession of a polling booth to prevent the orderly conduct of elections.
3. It is also committed when any elector is threatened and prevented from going to the polling station to cast his vote.
4. It has been declared a cognizable offence punishable by imprisonment.
Of these statements:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans b
128. Parliament or a State Legislature can declare a seat vacant if a member abstains himself without permission from the sessions for atleast
(a) 30 days
(c) 90 days
(b) 60 days
(d) 120 days
Ans b
129. Assertion (A): Panchayati Raj institutions were set upto decentralise planning to village level.
Reason (R): Village panchayats are in a better position to have a proper appreciation of their developmental needs.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans a
130. Consider the following statements regarding a No- confidence Motion in the Parliament:
(1) There is no mention of a No-confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
(2) A period of six months must elapse between the introduction of one No-confidence Motion and the other
(3) At least 100 members must support a Motion of No-confidence before it is introduced in the House.
(4) A motion of No-confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only Of these statements:
(a)2 and 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
Ans d
131. Consider the following activities indulged in by a candidate during an election campaign:
1. Giving gifts to voters to induce them to vote
2. Appealing for votes on the grounds of caste or religion
3. False character assassination of other candidates
4. Propagation and glorification of sati
Which of these constitute the corrupt practices?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
Ans c
132. The value of a vote of a member of the Parliament for the election of the President of India is determined by dividing the
(a) Nation's population as per the latest census by the number of Lok Sabha members
(b) Population as per the latest census by the total strength of the two Houses of the Parliament
(c) The total value of votes of the members of all the State Legislative Assemblies by the elected members of the two Houses of the Parliament
(d) Particular State's population as per the latest census by the number of members of Parliament elected from that State
Ans c
133. Assertion (A): Equality before the law is not applicable to the President of India
Reason (R): The President of India enjoys special powers and privileges under the Constitution
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans a
134. Holding of elections for the Panchayats is decided by
(a) The District Magistrate
(b) Constitutional mandate
(c) The State Government
(d) The Election Commission of state
Ans d
135. The right to Freedom of Speech in India may be restricted, if the freedom is used to
(a) Incite people to violence
(b) Propagate nationalisation of the private sector
(c) Level charges of corruption against those in power
(d) Spread superstition
Ans a
136. Of the following, with which does Article 78 of the Constitution deal with?
1. Emergency powers of the President
2. The Prime Minister's duty regarding keeping the President informed about the government's decisions, policies and actions
3. The President's power to send advisory messages to the Parliament
4. The President's power to get information from the Council of Ministers
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 2 only
Ans d
137. Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha
(b) Jurisdiction regarding election disputes rests with the Chief Election Commissioner
(c) The Speaker continues in his post even after the state council is dissolved till a new speaker is elected by the succeeding state council
(d) According to the Indian Constitution Parliament consists of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha only
Ans c
138. In India political parties are given recognition by
(a) President
(b) Law Commission
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Election Commission
Ans d
139. Of the various sources of income to the Gram Panchayats, one source is
(a) Income tax
(b) Sales tax
(c) Professional tax
(d) Levy duties
Ans d
140. The appointment of the Judges of Supreme Court is done by
(a) The Prime Minister on the advice of the Union Cabinet
(b) The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
(c) The Prime Minister in consultation with the Chief Justic
(d) The President in consultation with the colleguim of india
Ans d
141. Which one of the following can be prorogued but cannot be dissolved?
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) State Council
(c) Municipal Corporation
(d) Governing Council in a Union Territory
Ans a
142. To elect the President of India which one of the following election procedures is used?
(a) System of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote
(b) Proportional representation through list system
(c) Collective voting system
(d) Secondary voting system
Ans a
143. The Panchayati Raj was first introduced in the States of Rajasthan and
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Gujarat
(d) Orissa
Ans a
144. Several states in the North-Eastern part of India were carved out by separating them from Assam. Which one of the following pairs is not among them?
(a) Manipur and Meghalaya
(b) Mizoram and Tripura
(c) Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland
(d) Manipur and Tripura
Ans d
145. Which one of the following statements regarding the election of the President of India-is correct?
(a) A candidate securing the majority of votes is not automatically elected
(b) The Supreme Court has no jurisdiction in any doubt or dispute arising in connection with the election of the President
(c) The Presidential election cannot take place when one or more State Assemblies stand dissolved because all the State Assemblies form part of the electoral college
(d) The total value of the votes allotted to both Houses of Parliament is much more than the total value of the votes of all the States taken together
Ans a
146. Which of the following are Financial Committees of Parliament in India?
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans d
147. Which one of the following is not in the State List under the Constitution of India?
(a) Fisheries
(b) Agriculture
(c) Insurance
(d) Betting and Gambling
Ans c
148. Which one of the following cAorrectly reflects the position of the Upper House of the State legislature as compared to the position of the Upper House of the Parliament?
(a) While one-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire every second year, one-fourth of the members of the Legislative Council retire every eighteen months
(b) There is no provision for a joint sitting of the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council in the States for resolving deadlocks while there is such a provision in the case of the two Houses of Parliament
(c) While no Bill other than a Money Bill can originate in the State Legislative Council, no Bill can originate in the Rajya Sabha
(d) While Rajya Sabha has twelve nominated members, the State Legislative Council has none
Ans b
149. The Constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian Federation from the Constitution of
(a) USA
(b) Canada
(c) Ireland
(d) UK
Ans b
150. Which of the following statements regarding judiciary in India are correct?
1. Supreme Court of India is free from the control and influence of legislature and executive
2. Subordinate courts are at the head of the judicial hierarchy of the state.
3. The Chief Justice and other judges of the High Court are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
4. A High Court can withdraw a case from a subordinate court and can deal with the case itself if it is satisfied that the case involves a substantial point of constitutional law
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans c
151. Which of the following are the circumstances under which an elected member of Parliament may be disqualified on the ground of defection?
1. If he voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party
2. If he votes or abstains from voting contrary to any direction issued by his political party without prior permission of the political party
3. If he speaks against the political party
4. If he joins a political party other than the party on whose ticket he contested and got elected
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans b
152. The abolition of the I.A.S. and the I.P.S. has been recommended by the
(a) Dhebar Commission
(b) Kalekar Commission
(c) Kher Commission
(d) Rajamannar Commission
Ans d
153. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Neither the Finance Commission nor the Planning Commission is a constitutional body
(b) The scope of the Finance Commission is limited to a review of the revenue segment of the budget while the Planning Commission takes an overall review embracing both capital and revenue requirements of the states
(c) No one can be a member of both the Finance Commission and Planning Commission at the same time
(d) There is no overlapping of work and responsibility of the Finance Commission and those of the Planning Commission
Ans b
154. The Chief Minister of a State in India is NOT eligible to vote in the Presidential election if
(a) he himself is a candidate
(b) he is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of the State legislature
(c) he is a member of the Upper House of the State legislature
(d) he is a caretaker Chief Minister
Ans c
155. Among the four pairs given below which one consists of a correct combination of dignitaries who became Vice-Presidents after having held diplomatic posts like Ambassadors and High Commissioners?
(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan and G.S. Pathak
(b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan and V.V. Giri
(c) Dr. Zakir Hussain and K.R. Narayanan
(d) B.D. Jatti and K.R. Narayanan
Ans a
156. The Swaran Singh Committee considered the Question of
(a) more autonomy to Punjab on the model of Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) the suitability of the Presidential form of government for India.
(c) the precedence of the Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights.
(d) Administrative reforms
Ans c
157. Which one of the following is a feature common to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation?
(a) A single citizenship
(b) Three lists in the Constitution
(c) Dual judiciary
(d) A federal Supreme Court to interpret the constitution
Ans d
158. Which one of the following is in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India?
(a) Population control and family planning
(b) Public health and sanitation
(c) Capitation taxes
(d) Treasure trove
Ans a
159. Among the four political parties listed below, which one was the last to be formed?
(a) The Conservative Party in Britain
(b) The Democratic Party in USA
(c) The Republican Party in USA
(d) The Indian National Congress
Ans d
160. Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Courts and the Supreme Court?
(a) Disputes between the Centre and the States
(b) Disputes between the States inters
(c) Protection of the Fundamental Rights
(d) Protection against the violation of the Constitution
Ans c
161. Which one of the following statements regarding the office of the Speaker is correct?
(a) He holds office during the pleasure of the President
(b) He need not be a member of the House at the time of his election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his election
(c) He loses his office if the House is dissolved before the end of its normal tenure
(d) If he intends to resign, the letter of his resignation is to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker
Ans d
162. Which one of the following is INCORRECT in respect of Parliamentary Control over the Budget?
(a) Parliament has no say in the preparation of the budget
(b) Parliament has the power to increase expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund
(c) Parliament has no power to impose a tax without the President's recommendation
(d) Parliament has no power to increase a tax without the President's recommendation
Ans a
163. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly are true
1. It was not based on adult franchisee
2. It resulted from direct elections.
3. It was a multi-party body.
4. It worked through several committees.
Select the correct answer from the codes given bellow
(a) 1and 2
(c) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans c
164. Who among the following are appointed by the President of India?
1. The Chairman, Finance Commission
2. The Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
3. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans b