KAS Polity Test Questions
Preamble
1. By which name/names is our country mentioned in the Constitution?
(A) Bharat and India
(B) Bharat only
(C) Hindustan and India
(D) Bharat, Hindustan and India
Ans A
2. In the context of the Preamble of Indian Constitution which of the following sequence is correct?
(A) Republic, People's, Democratic, Secular, Socialist, Universal, Sovereign
(B) Sovereign, Socialist, Democratic, People's, Secular, Republic
(C) Sovereign, Socialist, People's, Democratic, Secular, Socialist, Republic
(D) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
Ans D
3. In the following quotation, "WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a (Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic) and to secure to all its citizens.
JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and opportunity and to promote among them all;
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the Individual and the unity and
the integrity of the Nation. In our Constituent Assembly, this 'X' do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution", 'X' stands for
(A) Twenty-sixth day of January, 1950
(B) Twenty-sixth day of November, 1949
(C) Twenty-sixth day of January, 1949
(D) None of the above
Ans B
4. What was the exact Constitutional Status of the Indian Republic on 26-1-1950 when the Constitution came into force?
(A) A Democratic Republic
(B) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(C) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(D) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
Ans B
5. Which one of the following describes India as a Secular State?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Preamble to the Constitution
(C) 9th Schedule
(D) Directive Principles
Ans B
6. Which one of the following words was not included in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution in 1975?
(A) Fraternity
(B) Sovereign
(C) Equality
(D) Integrity
Ans D
7. In which form is India declared in The Preamble of Indian Constitu- tion?
(A) A Sovereign, Republic Democratic,
(B) A Socialist, Republic Democratic,
(C) A Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
(D) None of the above
Ans C
8. The words 'Socialist' , 'Secular' and 'integrity 'were inserted in The Preamble to the Constitution by the
(A) 41st Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 43rd Amendment
(D) 44th Amendment
Ans B
9. 'India is a Republic' means
(A) It is the people who are the final authority in all matters
(B) There is no Parliamentary System of Government in India
(C) There are no hereditary rulers in India
(D) India is the Union of States
Ans C
10. India has people's sovereignty because the Preamble of the Constitution begins with the words.
(A) Democratic India
(B) Republic of People
(C) Democracy of People
(D) We the People of India
Ans D
11. 'All persons completely and equally are human' this principle is known as
(A) Universalism
(B) Holism
(C) Socialism
(D) Interactionism
Ana A
12. Which among the following is the correct expression of the term 'Secular' in India?
(A) India has many religions
(B) Indians have religious freedom
(C) Following the religion depends upon the will of an individual
(D) There is no religion of the State in India
Ans D
13. Which of the following words is not in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
(A) Socialist
(B) Secular
(C) Sovereign
(D) Public Welfare
Ans D
14. Which one of the following liberty is not embodied in the Preamble of the Constitution of India?
(A) Liberty of Thought
(B) Liberty of Expression
(C) Liberty of Belief
(D) Economic Liberty
Ans D
15. Which of the following is true in relation to the Preamble of Constitution of India?
(A) The words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were not the part of the Preamble on the enforcement of Constitution in 1950
(B) The above mentioned words were inserted by amendment in 1977
(C) The above mentioned words were inserted by amendment in 1985
(D) These two words are not part of the Preamble
Ans A
16. Which part of the Indian Constitution has been described as the 'Soul' of the Constitution?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) The Preamble
(D) Right Remedies to Constitutional
Ans D
17.Who among the following called the Preamble of Indian Constitution 'the horoscope of one sovereign, democratic republic'?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Vallabhbhai Patel
(C) B.R. Ambedkar
(D) K.M. Munshi
Ans D
18. Who has termed Constitution a sacred document?
(A) B.R. Ambedkar
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Deendayal Upadhyay
(D) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
Ans A
19. In which of the following cases Supreme Court held that "The Preamble forms part of the Constitution'?
(A) Union of India Vs. Dr. Kohli
(B) Banarsidas Vs. State of U.P.
(C) Bommai Vs. Union of India
(D) Malak Singh Vs. State of Punjab
Ans C
20. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court regarded Preamble as a part of the basic structure of India Constitution?
(A) Beru Bari Case
(B) A.K. Gopalan Case
(C) Privy Purse Case
(D) Keshavanand Bharti Case
Ans D
21. 'Economic Justice' as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in
(A) The Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
(B) The Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) The Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) None of the above
Ans B
22. The ideals and objectives outlined in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution have been further elaborated in
(A) The Chapter on Fundamental Rights
(B) The Chapter on Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) The Chapter on Directive Principles of State Policy, Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
(D) Nowhere else in the text of the Constitution
Ans C
23. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
(A) The Preamble
(B) The Fundamental Rights
(C) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) The Fundamental Duties
Ans A
24. The objective of Indian Constitution is reflected in which of the following?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Preamble of the Constitution
(C) Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) Parliament
Ans B
25. How many types of justice has been enshrined in the Preamble of the Constitution of India?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) One
(D) Four
Ans B
26. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of
(A) Privileges
(B) Restraints
(C) Competition
(D) Ideology
Ans A
27. Which of the following is correct?
(A) Social equality is not guaranteed in our Constitution
(B) Social equality already existed in our country
(C) Social equality is guaranteed in our Constitution
(D) None of the above
Ans C
28. Consider the following words.
1. Socialist
2. Democratic
3. Sovereign
4. Secular
Choose the correct sequence of words as given in the Preamble.
(A) 3, 1, 4 and 2 (B) 3, 4, 1 and 2
(C) 3, 4, 2 and 1 (D) 4, 1, 3 and 2
Ans B
29. Consider the following statements in regards to The Preamble of Constitution and give correct answer using the code given below.
1. The objectives Resolution by Jawaharlal Nehru finally became Preamble.
2. It is non-Justiciable.
3. It can't be amended.
4. Preamble cannot override the specific provision of the Constitution.
Codes
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1, 2 and 4
(C) Only 1 ,2 and 3
(D) Only 2,3 and 4
Ans B
30. The goal of Constitution is to secure/assure for all its citizens.
1. Justice Social and Economic
2. Liberty of Thought and Expression
3. Equality of Opportunity
4. Dignity of the Individual
Choose the correct answer by using given in the Codes.
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All of these
Ans D
31. The Preamble Constitution
1. is not enforceable in courts.
2. is important and have utility.
3. describes the aims of governance.
4. helps to give a Judicial meaning to our Constitution.
Code
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) Only 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 2, 3 and 4
Ans D
The Governance system
1. Constitution of India provides which type of governance system?
(A) Democratic
(B) Presidential
(C) Parliamentary
(D) Semi-democratic
Ans C
2. Which of the following is not a feature of good governance?
(A) Accountability
(B) Transparency
(C) Rule of Law
(D) Red Tapism
Ans D
3. Which one is the most prominent element of a state?
(A) Flag
(B) Capital
(C) Sovereignty
(D) Head of State
Ans C
4. "The State is everywhere: it leaves hardly a gap". This statement explains the concept of
(A) Welfare State
(B) Communist State
(C) Democratic State
(D) Police State
Ans A
5. Which one of the following is not the feature of Indian Constitution?
(A) Parliamentary Government
(B) Presidential Government
(C) Independence of Judiciary
(D) Federal Government
Ans B
6. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government.
(A) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all
(B) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities increasing day by day are
(C) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Gov- ernment to the people
(D) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline
Ans C
7. In which report of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission barriers of Good Governance in India have been identified?
(A) 'Ethics in Governance'
(B) 'Citizen-Centric Administration : The Heart of Governance'
(C) 'Prompting E-Governance'
(D) 'Local Governance'
Ans B
8. There is parliamentary system of Government in India because the
(A) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
(B) Parliament can amend the Constitution
(C) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
(D) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
Ans D
9. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that
(A) the executive and legislature work independently
(B) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient
(C) the executive remains responsible to the legislature
(D) the head of the government cannot be changed without election
Ans C
10. In a Parliamentary system of Government.
(A) Judiciary controls Executive
(B) Executive controls Judiciary
(C) Executive controls Legislature
(D) Legislature controls Executive
Ans D
11. In a Presidential Government, all the executive powers are vested in
(A) President
(B) Cabinet
(C) Legislature
(D) Upper House
Ans A
12. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian polity?
(A) A Government following the Constitution
(B) Democratic Government
(C) Rule of Law
(D) Authoritarian Government
Ans D
13. 'Welfare State' aims to
(A) Secure maximum welfare of maximum numbers
(B) Management of welfare of weaker sections
(C) Provide health facilities
(D) None of the above
Ans A
14. Which one of the following is not the Philosophy of the Constitution of India?
(A) Welfare State
(B) Socialist State
(C) Political Equality
(D) Communist State
Ans D
15. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(A) The Constitution of India is Presidential
(B) India is a titular monarchy
(C) India is an aristocracy
(D) India is Democracy a Parliamentary
Ans D
16. What is the main source of Political Power in India?
(A) The People
(B) The Constitution
(C) The Parliament
(D) The President
Ans A
17. Which one of the following is a basic feature of the Presidential Government?
(A) Rigid Constitution
(B) Single Executive
(C) Supremacy of the Legislature
(D) Residual Powers of the States
Ans B
18 . Which of the following is correct? The main feature of a Presidential form of Government is/are-
(A) The Head of the Executive is the President
(B) The President appoints his Council of Ministers
(C) The President cannot dissolve the Legislature
(D) All of the above
Ans D
19. The Democracy of India is based on the fact that
(A) The Constitution is written
(B) Fundamental rights have been provided
(C) Public enjoys the rights to choose and change the Government
(D) Directive principles of state policy have been provided here
Ans C
20. Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
(A) The intelligence and character of ordinary men and women
(B) The methods for strengthening executive leadership
(C) A superior individual with dynamism and vision
(D) A band of dedicated party workers
Ans A
21. Which one of the following determines that Indian Constitution is Federal?
(A) Written and non-flexible Constitution
(B) Free Judiciary
(C) Residuary powers are vested in centre /union
(D) Distribution of powers between union and states
Ans D
22. Indian Constitution is
(A) Rigid
(B) Flexible
(C) Neither rigid nor flexible
(D) Partly rigid and partly flexible
Ans D
23. Which one of the following points differentiates the Indian Parliamentary System and British Parliamentary System?
(A) Collective Responsibility
(B) Judicial Review
(C) Bi-cameral Legislature
(D) Real and Nominal Executive
Ans B
24. Which of the following is not a federal feature of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Distribution of power between Centre and States
(B) Entirely written Constitution
(C) Single Citizenship
(D) Independent Judiciary
Ans C
25. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
(A) There is an independent judiciary in India
(B) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States
(C) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha
(D) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units
Ans D
26. The reason for the Indian Constitution being the bulkiest is that
(A) it incorporates the experience of many Constitutions
(B) it contains detailed administrative provisions
(c) it deals with the Government of a large country
(D) it contains the Constitution of both Union and State Governments
Ans D
27. Who called Indian Federalism as the Co-operative Federalism?
(A) G. Austin
(B) K.C. Wheare
(C) Sir Ivor Jennings
(D) D.D. Basu
Ans A
28. Who said, "India is a quasi-federal state"?
(A) Harold Laski
(B) Ivor Jennings
(C) Lord Bryee
(D) K.C. Wheare
Ans D
29. Who rejected the 'Principles of Administrative as myths and proverbs'?
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) Frank Marini
(D) F.W. Riggs
Ans A
30. In relation to Indian Constitution who said that "Indian Constitution establishes good balance between Rigidity and Flexibility"?
(A) B.R. Ambedkar
(B) M.P. Payli
(C) Alexandrovics
(D) K.C. Wheare
Ans D
31. Who of the following has stated that "The Constitution has not been set in a tight mould of Federalism"?
(A) D.D. Basu
(B) K.M. Munshi
(C) B.R. Ambedkar
(D) K.S. Aiyer
Ans C
32. Which one of the following is incorrect about the Indian Political System?
(A) Secular State
(B) Parliamentary System of the Government
(C) Federal Policy
(D) Presidential System of Government
Ans D
33. Which one of the following is no true in relation to democratic determination?
(A) A state in which people are supreme
(B) Supreme power is vested in elected head
(C) Supreme power is vested in a person (solely) likewise a king
(D) A government formed by representative elected by people
Ans C
34. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the Parliamentary Government?
1. Members of the Cabinet are the Members of the Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3. The Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 and 2
(B) Only 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) All of these
Ans A
35. The cardinal features of political system in India are
1. It is a democratic republic.
2. It has a Parliamentary form of government.
3. The supreme power vests in People of India.
4. It provides for a unified authority.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
on Code
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
Ans B
36. Consider the following statements.
1. India is a democratic polity.
2. India is a sovereign state.
3. India has a democratic society.
4. India is welfare state.
Which of the above statements are true?
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans D
37. Which of the following statements about the federal system in India are correct?
1. The Constitution introduces a federal system as the basic structure of Government.
2. There is a strong admixture of a unitary bias.
3. Both the Union and State Legislatures are sovereign.
4. The legislative, financial and judicial powers have been divided between the Union and its units.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
Code
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four
Ans B
38. Consider the following statements. A Constitutional Government is one which
1. Places effective restriction on individual liberty in the interest of the state Authority.
2. Places effective restriction on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans B
39. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given at the end.
Assertion (A): The Constitution of India provides for a federal system.
Reason (R): It has created a very strong centre.
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
AnsB
40. Which of the following is a unitary element in India Federal System?
1. Decentralization of Powers
2. Appointment of Governors
3. Unequal Rajya Sabha representation in
4. Judicial Review
5. All India Services
6. Bi-cameral legislature
(A) 1,3 and 6
(B) 2, 3 and 5
(C) 3, 5 and 6
(D) 2, 4 and 5
Ans B
41. Assertion (A): President of India is elected indirectly.
Reason (R): Parliamentary system in India has been combined with Republicanism.
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans A
42. Here are two statements.
Assertion (A): Political Parties are life-blood of democracy.
Reason (R): Normally people blame political parties for bad governance.
Which of the following is correct in above context?
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans A
43. Assertion (A): Federalism is not practical in India.
Reason (R): India is not a Federal State.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans C
44. Assertion (A): The primary objective of India's federal design was to weave a nation out of its many diverse parts and protect national integration.
Reason (R): Accommodation of diversities has built a stronger, not weaker, Indian nationhood.
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans B
45. Assertion (A): Women, Dalits, Poor and Minority groups are the biggest stakeholders of Democracy in India.
Reason (R): Democracy in India has emerged as the carrier for the desire of Self Respect.
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans A
46. Assertion (A): Indian Constitution is quasi-federal.
Reason (R): Indian Constitution is neither federal nor unitary.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans A
The National emblem
1. Which is the National Bird of India?
(A) Peacock
(B) Duck
(C) Parrot
(D) Pigeon
AAns A
2. What does the wheel in the 'Indian National Flag' symbolize?
(A) Freedom
(B) Justice
(C) Equality
(D) Brotherhood
Ans B
3. India's National Animal is
(A) Deer
(B) Elephant
(C) Tiger
(D) Lion
Ans C
4. Which is the National Flower of India?
(A) Sunflower
(B) Lotus
(C) Rose
(D) Marigold
Ans B
5. The total number of spokes in the National Flag of India is
(A) 20
(B) 24
(C) 26
(D) 30
Ans B
6. A complete or formal rendition of national anthem takes
(A) 50 seconds
(B) 45 seconds
(C) 52 seconds
(D) 55 seconds
Ans C
States and the union territories
1. Who among the following has the e power the Union or establish new States?
(A) Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Political Parties
(D) Central Government
Ans A
2. According to Article 1 of Indian Constitution, India is
(A) Group of States
(B) Federation of States
(C) Confederation of States
(D) The Union of States
Ans D
3. Indian Parliament has the power to create a new State under which of the following Constitutional provisions?
(A) Article 1
(B) Article 2
(C) Article 3
(D) Article 4
Ans C
4. Which one of the following is empowered to alter the boundaries of States under the Constitution of India?
(A) Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) President
(D) Supreme Court
Ans A
5. Which one of the following is not correct in the matter of formation of new States?
(A) Parliament may by law form a new State
(B) Such law shall contain provisions for the amendment of the First Schedule and the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution
(C) Such law shall be deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purpose of Article 368
(D) No Bill for enacting such law shall be introduced in the Parliament unless it has been referred to the Legislature of the States, whose areas, boundaries or name is affected
Ans C
6. A Bill for the purpose of creating a new State in India must be passed by
(A) A simple majority in Parliament and ratification by not less than two-third of the States
(B) A simple majority in Parliament
(C) A two-third majority in Parliament and ratification by not less than two-third of the States
(D) None of the above
Ans B
7. Creation of a new state requires a ........... majority for Constitutional Amendment.
(A) Simple
(B) Two-third
(C) Three-fourth
(D) Two-third plus ratification by half of all states
Ans A
8. Union Territories in India are administered by
(A) The President
(B) The Lt. Governor
(C) Home Minister
(D) Administrator
Ans A
9. Which among the following is not a 'constitutional provision for the formation of new States'?
(A) Increase the area of any State
(B) Diminish the area of any State
(C) Alter the name of any State
(D) A State may include a Union territory
Ans D
10. Power to include or admit any State into Union of India is given to
(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Parliament
(D) Supreme Court
Ans C
11. If a new state is to be formed, which schedule of the constitution will need to be amended?
(A) Fifth
(B) Third
(C) Second
(D) First
Ans D
12. How many States and UTs did the States Reorganisation Commission create in 1956?
(A) 14 States and 6 UTs
(B) 17 States and 6 UTs
(C) 14 States and 8 UTs
(D) 17 States and 8 UTs
Ans A
13. How many States and Union Territories are there in India?
(A) 25 States and 7 Union Territories
(B) 28 States and 8 Union Territories (including national capital territory-1)
(C) 24 States and 6 Union Territory
(D) None of the above
Ans B
4. In which year were the Indian States reorganized on the recom- mendation of the State Reorganisation commission
(A) 1947
(B) 1951
(C) 1956
(D) 1966
Ans C
15. Which of the following is not a Union Territory?
(A) The Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Goa
(D) Puducherry
Ans C
16. The capital of which state has not been renamed after the attainment of freedom?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) West Bengal
(C) Kerala
(D) Andhra Pradesh
Ans D
17. Delhi is a / an
(A) State
(B) Union Territory
(C) Autonomous Council
(D) None of the above
Ans B
18. By which Constitutional amendment Delhi was given the status of National Capital Region?
(A) 67th
(B) 69th
(C) 68th
(D) 70th
Ans B
19. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) Goa attained full statehood in 1987
(B) Diu is an island in the Gulf of Khambhat
(C) Daman and Diu were separated from Goa by the 56th Amendment of the Constitution of India
(D) Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under French colonial rule till 1954
Ans D
20. Sikkim became a state of India under
(A) 30th Amendment
(B) 32nd Amendment
(C) 35th Amendment
(D) 40th Amendment
Ans C
21. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments integrated Sikkim as a full-fledged State of the Indian Union?
(A) 34th
(B) 35th
(C) 36th
(D) 37th
Ans C
22. A separate Vananchal State carved out of Bihar can be made possible by
(A) Passing the legislation in State Assembly
(B) Passing the ordinance by the Governor
(C) Completing formalities Constitutional
(D) Parliament under Article 3 of the Constitution
Ans D
23. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the formation of the following states as full States of the Indian Union?
(A) Sikkim -Arunachal Pradesh-Nagaland - Haryana
(B) Nagaland Haryana - Sikkim Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim- Haryana - Nagaland Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Nagaland-Arunachal Pradesh - Sikkim - Haryana
Ans B
24. Chhattisgarh State came existence on into
(A) 1 November, 2000
(B) 9 November, 2000
(C) 10 November, 2000
(D) 1 January, 2000
Ans A
25. Uttarakhand State was created in
(A) the year 1999
(B) the year 2000
(C) the year 2001
(D) the year 2002
Ans B
26. The correct sequence of formation of the following States in ascending order is
(A) Nagaland, Meghalaya, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Sikkim
(C) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Sikkim, Meghalaya
(D) Sikkim, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya
Ans A
27. The correct sequence of the formation of the following States in descending order is
(A) Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Haryana
(B) Haryana, Rajasthan, Maharashtra
(C) Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Haryana
(D) Haryana, Maharashtra, Rajasthan
Ans C
28. Which of the following Province of India was formed in 1948?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Assam
(C) Punjab
(D) Himachal Pradesh
Ans D
29. One of the following statements is incorrect. Point out
(A) The State of Mysore was renamed as Tamil Nadu
(B) Goa was separated from Daman and Diu
(C) The State of Bombay was split into Gujarat and Maharashtra
(D) Himachal Pradesh was previously in the list of Union Territories
Ans A
30. 'ULFA' extremist are related to which state
(A) Assam
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans A
31. 'People's War Group' a terrorist organization is based in
(A) Tripura
(B) Assam
(C) Nagaland
(D) Andhra Pradesh
Ans D
32. The Cauvery River Water dispute is among which of the following states?
(A) Karnataka - Maharashtra - Goa- Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnataka Tamil Nadu Maharashtra - Kerala
(C) Karnataka Tamil Nadu Kerala - Andhra Pradesh
(D) Karnataka Tamil Nadu Puducherry - Kerala
Ans D
33. The Commission for Reorganisation of States on the basis of language was established in
(A) 1856
(B) 1956
(C) 1953
(D) 1960
Ans C
34. The States were reorganised on the basis of language in
(A) 1956
(B) 1960
(C) 1962
(D) 1973
Ans A
35. In which year were the States reorganized on linguistic basis?
(A) 1947
(B) 1951
(C) 1956
(D) 1966
Ans C
36. Which state enjoys the distinction of first being created on linguistic basis in India?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Punjab
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Andhra Pradesh
Ans D
37. Andhra Pradesh was created as a language based state in
(A) 1950
(B) 1953
(C) 1956
(D) 1961
Ans B
38. Consider the following statement and answer using codes given below.
1. The term Union of States, has been used in the constitution because Indian States, have no right of separation.
2. S.K. Dhar Commission had given preference to administrative convenience rather language for reorganisation of States.
3. Congress Committee including Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Patel and Pattabhi Sitaramayya was not in favour of reorganisation of States on the basis of language.
Code
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) All of the above
Ans D
39. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the formation of the following Indian States?
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Jharkhand
4. Sikkim
Use the code given below to select the correct answer.
Code
(A) 4,1,3,2
(B) 4, 2, 1,3
(C) 3, 2, 1, 4
(D) 1,4,2,3
Ans B
40. The following States were created after 1960. Arrange them in ascending chronological order of their formation.
1. Haryana
2. Sikkim
3. Nagaland
4. Meghalaya
Choose your answer from the given code.
Code
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 3, 1, 4, 2
(D) 2, 4, 1, 3
Ans C
41. Identify the correct chronological order in which the following States were created in India from the code given below.
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Haryana
4. Sikkim
Code
(A) 1,2,3,4
(B) 1,3, 2, 4
(C) 4, 3, 1, 2
(D) 3, 4, 1, 2
Ans B
42. Assertion (A): India is not a federation.
Reason (R): Union Parliament has the power to alter the area, boundary and name of any State even without its consent.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans D
Citizenship
1. Indian citizenship obtained by cannot be
(A) Birth
(B) Naturalization
(C) Absorbing any part of land
(D) Depositing money in Indian Banks
Ans D
2. Who among the following is not eligible for registering as overseas citizen of India cardholder under the Citizenship Amendment Act, 2015?
(A) A minor child whose parents are an Indian citizen
(B) Spouse of foreign origin of an Indian citizen
(C) Indian who migrated Pakistan after partition to
(D) A great grandchild of a person who is a citizen of another country but whose grandparents were a citizen of India at the time of commencement of the Constitution
Ans C
3. The citizenship provided by the Constitution of India is
(A) Dual citizenship
(B) Single citizenship
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Ans B
4. Which one of the following features of citizenship in India is correct?
(A) Dual Citizenship of the State and Nation
(B) Single Citizenship of a State
(C) Single Citizenship of whole of India
(D) Dual Citizenship of India and another Country
Ans C
5. How many years does a person of Indian origin need to reside in India to become a citizen of India under the Citizenship Act, 1955?
(A) 5 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 7 years
(D) 10 years
Ans C
6. Which country accepted the policy of Dual Citizenship?
(A) India
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) U.S.A.
Ans D
7. Who/Which of the following is ericompetent to prescribe condition for acquisition of citizenship?
(A) Election Commission
(B) President
(C) Parliament and State Legislatures jointly
(D) Parliament
Ans D
8. Who among the following has the exclusive power of determining the issue of citizenship in India?
(A) The Parliament
(B) The President
(C) Central Government
(D) State Government
Ans A
9. Consider the following statements.
1. Article 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.
2. Constitution of India and the United States of America envisage a dual policy (The Union and the States) but a single citizenship.
3. A Naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1
Ans D
Fundamental Rights
1. Which of the following is given the power to enforce the Fundamental Rights by the Constitution?
(A) All Courts in India
(B) The Parliament
(C) The President
(D) The Supreme Court and High Courts
Ans D
2. 'Fundamental Rights' are
(A) Justifiable
(B) Non-justifiable
(C) Flexible
(D) Rigid
3. Which of the following is correct?
(A) The Nehru Report (1928) had advocated the inclusion of Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India
(B) The Government of India Act, 1935 referred to Fundamental Rights
(C) The August Offer, 1940, included the Fundamental Rights
(D) The Cripps Mission 1942 referred to Fundamental Rights
Ans A
4. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens
(B) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a state
(C) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State
(D) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many
Ans C
5. Fundamental Rights
(A) Cannot be suspended
(B) Can be suspended by order of Prime Minister
(C) May be suspended on the will of President
(D) May be suspended during Emergency
Ans D
6. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
(A) Rights are correlative with Duties
(B) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties
(C) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen
(D) Duties, not Rights, are import- ant for the stability of the State
Ans A
7. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, Fundamental Rights have been provided to
citizens?
(A) Articles 112 to 115
(B) Article 12 to 35
(C) Articles 222 to 235
(D) None of the above
Ans B
8. Under which of the following articles, the Indian Constitution Guarantees Fundamental Rights to the citizens?
(A) Articles 12 to 35
(B) Only Articles 12 to 30
(C) Only Articles 15 to 35
(D) Only Articles 14 to 32
Ans A
9. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution puts an absolute limitation on the legislative power?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 16
(D) Article 17
Ans A
10. Under which article of the Constitution reservations in admission to educational institutions, including private and unaided, to OBCs/ST/ SC is made?
(A) Article 15(4)
(B) Article 15(5)
(C) Article 16(4)
(D) Article 16(5)
Ans B
11. Which Article of the Constitution gives precedence to Constitutional provisions over the laws made by the Union Parliament/State Legislatures? [45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
(A) 13
(B) 32
(C) 245
(D) 326
Ans A
12. The main object of Article 13 of the Indian Constitution is to secure the Paramountcy of the Constitution regarding.
(A) Directive Principles of State Policy
(B) Fundamental Rights
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) All of the above
Ans B
13. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution belongs to a different category?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 16
(D) Article 19
Ans D
14. In the Indian Constitution of the 'Right to Freedom' is granted by four Articles which are
(A) Article-19 to Article-22
(B) Article-16 to Article - 19
(C) Article-17 to Article - 20
(D) Article-18 to Article - 21
Ans A
15. Which of the following enabled the Supreme Court of India to deduce a fundamental right to equal pay for equal work?
(A) The word 'socialist' used in the Preamble to the Constitution
(B) (A) read with Article 14 of the Constitution
(C) (A) read with Article 16 of the Constitution
(D) (A), (B) and (C) all read together
Ans D
16. Prohibition of discrimination on the ground of religion etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution of India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under
(A) The Right to Freedom of Religion
(B) The Right against Exploitation
(C) The Cultural and Educational Rights
(D) The Right to Equality
Ans D
17. In the Indian Constitution, the right to equality is granted by five Articles. They are
(A) Article 16 to Article 20
(B) Article 15 to Article 19
(C) Article 14 to Article 18
(D) Article 13 to Article 17
Ans C
18. Which one of the following is not included in the fundamental right to equality as enshrined in the Indian Constitution?
(A) Equality before law
(B) Social equality
(C) Equal opportunity
(D) Economic equality
Ans D
19. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution deals with the fundamental rights related to the exploitation of children?
(A) 17
(B) 19
(C) 24
(D) 25
Ans C
20. Child Rights are protected in Article of ICCPR.
(A) 35
(B) 24
(C) 21
(D) 23
Ans B
21. Eradication of all types of social discrimination comes under which generation of Human Rights?
(A) First generation
(B) Second generation
(C) Third generation
(D) Fourth generation
Ans B
22. Which Article of the Indian Constitution eradicates untouchability and prohibits its practice in any form?
(A) Article 16
(B) Article 17
(C) Article 18
(D) Article 15
Ans B
23. Article 17 of the deals with Indian Constitution
(A) Education
(B) Health
(C) Abolition of untouchability
(D) Food guarantee
Ans C
24. A court can presume that any act constituting offence was committed on the ground of 'untouchability' - if such offence is committed in relation to
(A) A member of Scheduled Castes
(B) A member of Scheduled Tribes
(C) A member of any community
(D) None of the above
Ans A
25. Which one of the following fundamental rights was amended as a result of the decision of the Supreme Court of India in 'State of Madras Vs. Champakam Dorairajan' case
(A) Right to equality before law
(B) Right against discrimination
(C) Right against untouchability
(D) Right to freedom of speech and expression
Ans B
26. Which Article of the Constitution of India is related with Freedom of the Press?
(A) Article 19
(B) Article 20
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 22
Ans A
27. Under which Article Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes have been granted fundamental, socio- economic, political and cultural rights?
(A) Article 20
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 18
(D) Article 17
Ans D
28. Indian Constitution does not give right to freedom of the Press, but it is included in
(A) Article 19(1)(a)
(B) Article 19(1)(b)
(C) Article 19(1)(c)
(D) Article 19(1)(d)
Ans A
29. In which Article the Fundamental Rights to Freedom of Speech and Expression is provided in the Constitution of India?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 22
Ans B
30. Freedom of News Papers in India
(A) Specially provided by Article 19(1)(a) (b)
(B) Is secured under Article 19(1)
(C) Secured by Article 361-A
(D) Has origin by the enforcement of Rule of law
Ans A
31. As a part of the Right to Freedom, which one of the following does not form part of 'Freedom to Assemble Peaceably and Without Arms'?
(A) Gherao officials not performing their duties
(B) Peaceful assembly
(C) People who assemble should not bear arms
(D) State can make a law imposing reasonable restrictions on the exercise of this Right
Ans A
32. By which of the following grounds, a citizen's freedom of expression may not be subjected to restriction?
(A) Sovereignty of India
(B) Public order
(C) Contempt of Court
(D) Unbecoming criticism
Ans D
33. Which Article of the Constitution of Indian Republic relates to the Protection of 'Life and Personal Liberty'?
(A) Article 19
(B) Article 21
(C) Article 20
(D) Article 22
Ans B
34. Which Article of the Indian Constitution protects person's right to travel abroad?
(A) 14
(B) 19
(C) 21
(D) None of the above
Ans C
35. Which one of the following rights is available under Article 19(1)(d) read with Article 21?
(A) Right to travel abroad
(B) Right to shelter
(C) Right to privacy
(D) Right to information
Ans C
36. Which one of the following does not fall within the purview of article 21 of the Constitution?
(A) Medical aid to injured by a doctor
(B) Sexual Harassment of Women at work place
(C) Pollution of the quality of water
(D) Capital punishment
Ans D
37. According to Article 25 of the Constitution 'Right to Freedom of Religion' is not subjected to
(A) Public Order
(B) Health
(C) Morality
(D) Humanism
Ans D
38. Under which Article of Indian Constitution wearing of 'Kripans' by Sikh is deemed as a right to freedom of religion?
(A) Article 24
(B) Article 25
(C) Article 26
(D) Article 27
Ans B
39. Article 25 of the refers to Indian Constitution
(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right to Property
(C) Freedom of Religion
(D) Protection of Minorities
Ans C
40. Which one of the following is not properly matched?
(A) Article 23 - Prohibition of traffic in human and forced labour
(B) Article 24-Prohibition of employment of children in factories
(C) Article 26-Freedom to manage religious affairs
(D) Article 29- Freedom of establishment and administration of educational institutions by minorities
Ans D
41. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour Article 23
(B) Protection of interests of minorities - Article 29
(C) Right to constitutional remedies - Article 32
(D) Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions-Article 31
Ans D
42. Which Article of the Constitution protects the 'Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice'?
(A) 19
(B) 26
(C) 29
(D) 30
Ans D
43. Which of the following rights can be enforced under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution
(A) Constitutional Rights
(B) Fundamental Rights
(C) Statutory Rights
(D) All of the above
Ans B
44. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) K.M. Munshi was one of the members of the drafting committee of the Constitution
(B) The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly
(C) The Pachayati Raj was recom- mended by Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Report-1957
(D) The President of India is the Guardian of Fundamental Rights under the Constitution
Ans D
45. Under the Indian Constitution who is the guardian of the fundamental rights?
(A) Parliament
(B) President
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Cabinet
Ans C
46. Under the Indian Constitution who amongst the following is considered to be the guardian of the fundamental rights?
(A) Parliament
(B) President
(C) Judiciary
(D) Prime Minister
Ans C
47. Which one of the following is regarded as the protector of fundamental rights of citizens and Guardian of the Constitution of India?
(A) The Parliament
(B) The Attorney General
(C) The Supreme Court
(D) The President
Ans C
Directive Principles of State Policy
1. The concept of Welfare State is included in the Constitution of India in the
(A) Directive Principles of State Policy
(B) Fourth Schedule of the Constitution
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) Preamble of the Constitution
Ans A
2. The idea of India as Welfare State is found in
(A) Preamble of the Constitution
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Ans D
3. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish
(A) Political Democracy
(B) Social Democracy
(C) Gandhian Democracy
(D) Social Democracy and Economic
Ans D
4. Which one of the following is not the objective of the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(A) To establish a welfare State
(B) To ensure Justice socio-economic
(C) To establish a Religious State
(D) To establish a Secular State
Ans C
5. The Indian Constitution borrowed the Directive Principles of the State Policy from the Constitution of which of the following countries?
(A) United Kingdom (U.K.) Britain
(B) United States of America (U.S.A)
(C) Ireland
(D) Japan
Ans C
6. Directive Principles of State Policy are
(A) Justiciable
(B) Non-justiciable
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) None of the above
Ans B
7. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental to the governance of the country?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) Fundamental Rights and Fund- amental Duties
Ans C
8. 'Equal Pay for Equal Work' has been ensured in the Indian Constitution as one of the
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) Economic Rights
Ans B
9. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(A) Right Against Exploitation
(B) Equal Pay for Equal Work
(C) Equality Before Law
(D) Right to Freedom of Religion
Ans B
10. Which one of the following is included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(A) Protection in respect of conviction for offences
(B) Protection of life and personal liberty
(C) Protection of interest of minorities
(D) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
Ans D
11. Panchayati Raj System in India is laid down under
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) Election Commission Act
Ans C
12. Which one of the following Articles directs State Government to organize Village Panchayats?
(A) Article 32
(B) Article 40
(C) Article 48
(D) Article 51
Ans B
13. Under the Constitution of India organization of village panchayat is a
(A) Fundamental Right
(B) Fundamental Duty
(C) Directive Principle
(D) None of the above
Ans C
14. Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security?
(A) 51
(B) 48A
(C) 43A
(D) 41
Ans A
15. In the Constitution of India, Promotion of International Peace and Security is included in the
(A) Preamble to the Constitution
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) Ninth Schedule
Ans B
16. Which Article of the Indian Constitution is related to Indian Foreign Policy?
(A) Article 380
(B) Article 312
(C) Article 45
(D) Article 51
Ans D
17. Which Article of the Constitution of India has the provision of participation of workers in management of industry?
(A) Article 43
(B) Article 43A
(C) Article 45
(D) Article 47
Ans B
18. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
(A) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(B) Participation of workers in the management of industries
(C) Right to work, education and public assistance
(D) Securing living wage and human condition of work to workers
Ans B
19. Which of the following was not added to the Directive Principles by the 42nd Amendment of the Constitution?
(A) Protection of Children and youth from exploitation
(B) Equal justice and free legal aid
(C) Uniform civil code
(D) Participation of workers in the management of industries
Ans C
20. Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?
(A) Prohibition of the consumption of Intoxicating Drinks
(B) Cow Protection
(C) Environment Protection
(D) Free Education to children up to the age of fourteen (14)
Ans D
21. Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?
(A) Prohibition of the consumption of intoxicating drinks
(B) Prohibiting the slaughter of cows and calves
(C) Protection and improvement of the environment
(D) Free education for children up to the age of 16 years
Ans D
22. How are the Directive Principles of State Policy different from Fundamental Rights?
(A) Former is for Union Government and later is for state Government
(B) Former is a part of Constitution whereas later is not
(C) Directive Principles are not enforceable whereas Fundamental Right can be enforced
(D) None of the above
Ans C
23. The 'Directive Principles' are.
(A) Justifiable
(B) Non-justifiable
(C) Rigid
(D) Flexible
Ans B
24. Which one of the following is a Directive Principle of State Policy?
(A) The State shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment
(B) The State shall not deny equality to any person before the law
(C) The State shall not discriminate against any person on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place or birth
(D) Untouchability enforcement
Ans A
25. The Constitution is silent in the Directive Principles of State Policy about
(A) Adult education
(B) Living wages for workers
(C) Free legal aid to the poor
(D) Primary education to children till they complete the age of 16 years
Ans A
26. Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy was added to the Constitution at a later date?
(A) Organization of Village Panchayats
(B) Prohibition of Cow Slaughter
(C) Free Legal Aid
(D) Uniform Civil Code
Ans C
27. Which of the following is not included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(A) Prohibition of Liquor
(B) Right to Work
(C) Equal Wage for Equal Work
(D) Right to Information
Ans D
28. Which one of the following is a Directive Principle of the State Policy?
(A) Uniform Civil Code
(B) Freedom of the Press
(C) Freedom of the Religion
(D) Equality Before Law
Ans A
29. Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?
(A) Equal pay for equal work for men and women
(B) Equal right to an adequate means of livelihood
(C) Abolition of Untouchability
(D) Just and humane conditions of work
Ans C
30. "The Directive Principles of State Policy is a cheque which is paid on Bank's Convenience". Who said it?
(A) B.R. Ambedkar
(B) K.M. Munshi
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) K.T. Shah
Ans D
31. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy.
1. These principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans C
32. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans D
33. Consider the following statements. With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principle of State Policy constitute limitations upon
1. legislative function.
2. executive function.
Which of the above statement is/ are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans D
34. The Constitution grants right against exploitation to
1. Children
2. Women
3. Tribals
4. Dalits
Choose your correct answer with the help of given code.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 2, 3 and 4
Ans C
35. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
1. Prohibition of Trafficking in human beings and forced labour.
2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans B
36. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India.
1. Securing Uniform Civil Code for citizens of India.
2. Organizing Village Panchayats.
3. Promoting Cottage Industries in Rural Areas.
4. Securing for all worker's reasonable leisure and culture opportunities.
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans B
37. Which of the following is/are listed among the Directive Principles in Part-IV of the Constitution of India?
1. Equal Pay for Equal Work
2. Uniform Civil Code
3. Small family norm
4. Education through mother tongue at primary level
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans B
38. Identify the items included in the Directive Principles of State Policy.
1. Prohibition of Consumption of Liquor
2. Prohibition of employment of children in factories or mines
3. Prohibition of beggar or forced labour
4. Prohibition of untouchability
Select the correct answer with the aid of the code given below.
Code
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 1
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans C
39. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following.
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India fulfilled the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans B
40. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List-I (Articles of the Constitution)
(a) Article 40
(b) Article 41
(c) Article 44
(d) Article 48
List-II (Subject Matter)
1. Organization Panchayat Village
2. Right to Work
3. Uniform Civil Code
4. Organization of Agriculture and Animal Husbandry
Code
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 1 3 4 2
(D) 3 2 4 1
Ans A
41. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): MGNREGA is providing employment to atleast one member of the eligible household for a minimum period of 100 days in a year.
Reason (R): Right to employment is enumerated in Part III of the Constitution.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correc explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans C
Fundamental Duties
1. The provisions relating to Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India were added on the recommendation of
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(B) Iyengar Committee
(C) Swaran Singh Committee
(D) Thakkar Commission
Ans C
2. When were the Fundamental Duties incorporated in the Constitution?
(A) 1976
(B) 1979
(C) 1975
(D) 1978
3. The Fundamental Duty to uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India is mentioned at number
(A) Four
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
Ans D
4. Under which Articles of Indian Constitution, provision for Fundamental Duties has been made by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act?
(A) Article 50
(B) Article 51A
(C) Article 52
(D) Article 53
Ans B
5. The Fundamental Duties are mentioned in which of the following part of the Constitution of India?
(A) Part III
(B) Part IV
(C) Part IVA
(D) Part VI
Ans C
6. By which Constitutional Amendment, ten Fundamental Duties were added in the Constitution for Indian citizens?
(A) 24th
(B) 38th
(C) 44th
(D) 42nd
Ans D
7. Which Amendment Act included the Fundamental Duties of citizens in the Indian Constitution?
(A) 42nd Amendment Act
(B) 56th Amendment Act
(C) 73rd Amendment Act
(D) 98th Amendment Act
Ans A
8. The 10 commandments, which were added by 42nd Amendment Act in Constitution of India, are called as
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Panchayati Raj Principles
(D) Directive Principles of State Policy
Ans B
9. The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) has incorporated into the Constitution of India a new chapter on
(A) Administration Territories of Union
(B) Formation Councils of Inter-State
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) None of the above
Ans C
10. In which year Fundamental Duties of Citizens were introduced by 42nd Amendment?
(A) 1976
(B) 1975
(C) 1978
(D) 1980
Ans A
11. Which of the following statements regarding Fundamental Duties is not true?
(A) They can be enforced by writs
(B) They can be promoted only by constitutional methods
(C) They can be used for interpreting ambiguous statutes
(D) The performance of any particular duty comes within the sphere of constitutional law which court has to decide
Ans A
12. Which one of the following is a Fundamental Duty in India?
(A) Separation of judiciary from executive
(B) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
(C) Free and compulsory education
(D) Abolition of Untouchability
Ans B
13 . The Fundamental Duties of a citizen do not include duty
(A) To protect and improve the natural environment
(B) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom
(C) To strive towards abolition of untouchability
(D) To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of enquiry and reform
Ans C
14. Which one of the following is not a part of Fundamental Duties under Indian Constitution?
(A) To defend the country and render national service
(B) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
(C) To help in organizing Village Panchayats
(D) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
Ans C
15. Protection of which one of the following is a Fundamental Duty of an Indian citizen?
(A) Village Panchayat
(B) National Flag
(C) Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes
(D) Wildlife
Ans D
16. "It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment". The above statement refers to which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 48A
(C) Article 51A
(D) Article 56
Ans C
17. Which one of the following is incorrect?
(A) Fundamental Duties are the part of the Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties are not a part of Fundamental Rights
(C) Fundamental Duties are enumerated in Part IVA of the Indian Constitution
(D) Article 51A explains the duties of every citizen of India
Ans A
18. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty?
(A) To respect the National Anthem
(B) To safeguard public property
(C) To protect monuments and places of public importance
(D) To protect and improve the natural environment
Ans C
19. How many Fundamental Duties are there in the Indian Constitution?
(A) Nine
(B) Eleven
(C) Twelve
(D) Twenty
Ans B
20. Which one of the following is not provided in Part IV A (Fundamental Duties) of the Indian Constitution?
(A) To respect the National Flag
(B) To promote spirit of brother- hood amongst all people of India
(C) To respect our parents and teachers
(D) To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
Ans C
21. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty?
(A) To vote in public elections
(B) To develop scientific temper
(C) To safeguard public property
(D) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
Ans A
22. "To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India" is a provision made in the
(A) Preamble of the Constitution
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) Fundamental Duties
Ans D
23. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
Parts of the Constitution Subject
(A) Part II - Citizenship
(B) Part III - Fundamental Rights
(C) Part IV - Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) Part V - Fundamental Duties
Ans D
24. Which of the following is / are among the Fundamental of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?
1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice.
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry.
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 and 2
(B) Only 2
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans C