Polity Qts & Ans 201 to 400
201. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing International treaties
(a) with the consent of all the States
(b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) without the consent of any State
Ans d
202. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?
(a) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
(c) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by Lok Sabha and send it for consideration within 14 days
(d) The President cannot return a Money Bill to Lok Sabha for reconsideration
Ans a
203. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 refers to the
(a) generation of gainful employment for the unemployed and the underemployed men and women in rural area
(b) generation of employment for the able bodied adults who are in need and desirous of work during the lean agricultural season
(c) laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country
(d) guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person, equality before law and equal protection
without discrimination
Ans c
204. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Goa attained full statehood in 1987
(b) Diu is an island in the Gulf of Khambhat
(c) Daman and Diu were separated from Goa by the 56th Amendment of the Constitution of India
(d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under French colonial rule till 1954
Ans d
206. In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration?
(a) Through Consultative Committees of various ministries
(b) Through Parliamentary Committees
(c) By making the administrators send periodic reports
(d) By compelling the executive to issue writs
Ans b
207. Consider the following statements about the minorities in India:
1. The Government of India has notified five communities, namely, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Buddhists and Zoroastrians as Minorities.
2. The National Commission for Minorities was given statutory status in 1993.
3. The smallest religious minority in India are the Zoroastrians.
4. The Constitution of India recognizes and protects religious and linguistic minorities.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans d
208. Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts in India:
1. There are eighteen High Courts in the country.
2. Three of them have jurisdiction over more than one State.
3. No Union Territory has a High Court of its own.
4. Judges of the High Court hold office till the age of 62.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 (d) 2 only
Ans d
209. If a new State of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution must be amended?
(a) First (c) Third
(b) Second (d) Fifth
Ans a
210. Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavor of every State to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education?
(a) Article 349
(b) Article 350
(c) Article 350-A
(d) Article 351
Ans c
211. The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President on a matter of law or fact
(a) on its own initative
(b) only if he seeks such advice
(c) only if the matter relates to the Fundamental Rights of citizens
(d) only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of the country
Ans b
212. Which one of the following duties is NOT performed by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
(a) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
(b) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts
(c) To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing profit and loss accounts
(d) To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public revenue is lodged in the exchequer
Ans d
213. Which one of the following statement correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a) It lists the distribution of power between the Union and the States
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
Ans d
214. Consider the following statements regarding the political parties in India:
(1) The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the registration of political parties.
(2) Registration of political parties is carried out by the Election Commission.
(3) A national level political party is one which is recognised in four or more States.
(4) During the 1999 general elections, there were six National and 48 State level parties recognised by the Election Commission.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans d
215. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Article of the Constitution) (Content)
A. Article 54 1. Election of the President of India
B. Article 75 2. Appointment of the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers
C. Article 155 3. Appointment of the Governor of a state
Ministers of a state
5. Composition of Legislative Assemblies
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 2 4 5
(c) 2 1 3 5
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans a
216. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged upon the
(a) Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Consolidated Fund of the State
(c) Contingency Fund of India
(d) Contingency Fund of the State
Ans b
217. The members of the Constituent Assembly which drafted the Constitution of India were
(a) nominated by the British Parliament
(b) nominated by the Governor General
(c) elected by the Legislative Assemblies of various provinces
(d) elected by the Indian National Congress and Muslim League
Ans c
218. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish:
(a) political democracy
(b) social democracy
(c) Gandhian democracy
(d) social and economic democracy
Ans d
219. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr BR Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right to property
(c) Right to equality
(d) Right to Constitutional remedies
Ans d
220. Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security?
(a) 51
(b) 48 A
(c) 43 A
(d) 41
Ans a
221. Consider the following statements with reference to India:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers but receive unequal salaries
2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as in provided to a judge of the Supreme Court
3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court
4. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is five years from the date he assumes his office or till the day he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
Ans b
222. Which one of the following authorities recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India?
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Inter-State Council
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
(d) Public Accounts Committee
Ans a
223. With reference to Indian Polity, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Planning Commission is accountable to parliament
(b) President can make ordinance only when either to the two Houses of Parliament is not in session
(c) The minimum age prescribed for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court is 40 years
(d) National Development Council is constituted of Union Finance Minister and the Chief Ministers of all the States
Ans b
224. In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted by Five Articles. They are
(a) Article 16 to Article 20
(b) Article 15 to Article 19
(c) Article 14 to Article 18
(d) Article 13 to Article 17
Ans c
225. Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the President to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers?
(a) 39th ( c) 42nd
(b) 40th (d) 44th
Ans d
226. The term of the Lok Sabha
(a) cannot be extended under any circumstances
(b) can be extended by six months at a time
(c) can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
(d) can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency
Ans c
227. The 93rd Constitutional Amendment Bill deals with the
(a) continuation of reservation for backward classes in government employment
(b) free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years
(c) reservation of 30 per cent posts for women in government recruitments
(d) allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently created States
Ans a
228. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States?
(a) 6th and 22nd
(b) 13th and 38th
(c) 7th and 31st
(d) 11th and 42nd
Ans c
229. Consider the following statements: In the Electoral College for Presidential Election in India,
1. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals State Population Number of elected MLAs of the State x 100
2. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament equals Total value of the votes of all elected MLAs Total number of elected MPs
3. there were more than 5000 members in the latest election.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) Only 3
Ans b
230. Consider the following statements:
The function(s) of the Finance Commission is/are
1. to allow the withdrawal of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. to allocate between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes.
3. to consider applications for grants-in-aid from States.
4. to supervise and report on whether the Union and State governments are levying taxes in accordance with the budgetary provisions.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans b
231. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha can have nominated members
(b) There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha
(c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister.
(d) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential elections
Ans c
232. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative Powers rests with:
(a) The President of India
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs
Ans c
233. Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Calcutta
(d) Orissa
(c) Madras
Ans b
234. Under which article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the Supreme Court to seek the Court's opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election Commission's decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly elections (in the year 2002)?
(a) Article 142
(b) Article 143
(c) Article 144
(d) Article 145
Ans b
235.Consider the following statements:
1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings, members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from Lok Sabha.
2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee on parliamentary Affairs
3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nominates Members of parliament on Committees, Councils, Boards and Commissions etc. set up by the Government of India in the various ministries.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans d
236. Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of States and specifies their territories?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Ans a
237. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by:
(a) First Amendment
(b) Eighth Amendment
(c) Ninth Amendment
(d) Forty second Amendment
Ans a
238. Consider the following statements:
1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of the Constitution
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961
3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans d
239. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his assent to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002 )?
(a) Article 121
(d) Article 124
(c) Article 123
(b) Article 136
Ans c
240. Which of Constitution provides that 'It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance'?
(a) Article 215
(b) Article 275
(c) Article 325
(d) Article 355
Ans d
241. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately, by special majority?
(a) Ordinary Bill
(b) Money Bill
(c) Finance Bill
(d) Constitution Amendment Bill
Ans d
242. With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider the following statements:
1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of Parliament.
2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.
3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same form of parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans b
243. Consider the following statements:
1. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Sessions Judge.
2. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Courts.
3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a pleader of seven years standing or more, or an officer in judicial service of the Union or the State.
4. When the Sessions Judge awards death sentence, it must be confirmed by the High Court before it is carried out.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans d
244. Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House.
2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extenstion of the term, there is an automatic extension of Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President.
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until 'immediately before the first meeting of the House'.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans d
245. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based
(b) In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have been laid down in the Rules
(c) A motion of no-confidence, once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being granted
(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no-confidence
Ans a
246. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
Ans d
247. Consider the following tasks:
1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections.
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures and the Office of the President and the Vice-President.
3. Giving recognition to political parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and individuals contesting the election.
4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes.
Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
Ans a
248. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the:
(a) Lok Sabha alone
(b) Either House of Parliament
(c) Joint Sitting of Parliament
(d) Rajya Sabha alone
Ans d
249. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Forests : Concurrent List
(b) Stock Exchanges :Concurrent List
(c) Post Office Savings Bank : Union List
(d) Public Health : State List
Ans b
250. Consider the following statements:
1. The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India.
2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secretary of National Development Council.
3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only
Ans d
251. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?
(a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament before it can be enacted into law
(b) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act
(c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation
(d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President
Ans a
252. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union?
(a) Article 257
(b) Article 258
(c) Article 355
(d) Article 356
Ans a
253. Directions: The following question consists of two statements; one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): The Central Rural Sanitation Programme was launched in 1986 to improve the quality of life of rural people in India.
Reason(R): Rural sanitation is a subject in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans c
254. Which Article of the Constitution of India says, 'No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment'?
(a) Article 24
(b) Article 45
(c) Article 330
(d) Article 368
Ans a
255. According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongst the following can be its Chairman?
(a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court
(b) Any serving Judge of the High Court
(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of High Court
Ans c
256. Consider the following events:
1. Fourth general elections in India
2. Formation of Haryana State
3. Mysore named as Karnataka State
4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full States
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?
(a) 2-1-4-3
(c) 2-3-4-1
(b) 4-3-2-1
(d) 4-1-2-3
Ans a
257. Consider the following statements:
1. There are 25 High Courts in India
2. Punjab, Haryana and the Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court.
3. National Capital Territory of Delhi has a High Court of its own.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 Only
Ans c
259. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament cannot enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as its jurisdiction is limited to that conferred by the Constitution
2. The officers and servants of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the concerned Chief Justice and the administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans b
258. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to Property.
2. Right to Property is a legal right but not a Fundamental Right.
3. Article 300 A was inserted in the Constitution of India by the Congress Government at the Centre by the 44th Constitutional Amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans a
259. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 371A to 3711 were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa. Mizoram,
2. Constitution of India and the United States of America can envisage a dual policy (The Union and the States) but a single citizenship
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 only
Ans d
260. Consider the following statements:
1. Part IX of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Panchayats and was inserted by the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992
2. Part IX A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for municipalities and the Article 243 Q envisages two types of municipalities - Municipal Council and a Municipal Corporation for every state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans a
261. Consider the following:
1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies
2. Motor accident cases
3. Pension cases
For which of the above are Lok Adalats held?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans c
262. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
2. There are 390 Article in the Constitution of India in all.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendments) Acts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans c
263. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constitution Assembly?
(a) B. R. Ambedkar
(b) J. B. Kripalani
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
Ans c
264. The Constitution (98th Amendment) Act is related to:
(a) Empowering the Centre to levy and appropriate service tax
(b) The Constitution of the National Judicial Commission
(c) Readjustment of electoral constituencies on the basis of the Population Census 2001
(d) The demarcation of new boundaries between States
Ans d
265. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
(b) Agriculture
(c) Fisheries
(d) Public health
Ans a
266. Consider the following statements:
1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India to encourage equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
2. The constitution of India does not define backward classes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans d
267. Consider the following statements:
1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List.
2. Resolution approving the Proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans a
268. What does the 104th Constitution Amendment Bill relate to?
(a) Abolition of Legislative Councils in certain States
(b) Introduction of dual citizenship for persons of Indian origin living outside India
(c) Providing quota to socially and educationally backward classes in private educational institutions.
(d) Providing quota for religious minorities in the services under the Central Government.
Ans c
269. Which one among the following commissions was set up in pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India?
(a) University Grants commission
(b) National Human Rights Commission
(c) Election Commission
(d) Central Vigilance Commission
Ans c
270. Consider the following statements:
1. A person who has held office as a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India except the Supreme Court.
2. A person is not qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court in India unless he has for at least five years held a judicial office in the territory of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans d
271. Consider the following statements:
1. Free and compulsory education to the children of 6- 14 years age group by the state was made a Fundamental Right by the 76 Amendment to the Constitution of India.
2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to provide computer education even in rural areas.
3. Education was included in the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment, 1976 to the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2, only
(c) 2 and 3, only
(d) 1 and 3, only
Ans c
272. Directions: The following question consist of two statements, one labelled as the Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:
Assertion (A): In India, every state has a High Court in its territory.
Reason (R): The Constitution of India provides for a High Court in each state.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is True but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans d
273. Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India:
1. A Proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolution of both houses of Parliament.
2. If any proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for the president of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union but excluding the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans a
274. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
2. The Committee on Public Accounts comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members of Rajya Sabha and a few eminent persons of industry and trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans a
275. Consider the following statements:
1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. After retirement from the office, a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans a
276. question consists of two statements, one labelled as the 'Assertion (A) and the other as "Reason (R)". You have to examine there items using the code given below:
Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible both to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Reason(R): The Member of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be the Ministers of the Union Government.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is True but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans d
277. Which schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States?
(a) Third
(c) Seventh
(b) Fifth
(d) Ninth
Ans b
278. Department of Border Management is a Department of which one of the following Union Ministries?
(a) Ministry of Defence
(b) Ministry Of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and Highways
(d) Ministry of Environment and Forests
Ans b
279. Consider the following statements:
The Constitution of India Provides that
1. The Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than 450 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State
2. A person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a State if he/she is less than 25 years of age
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans b
280. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State policy?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Prohibition of Consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans b
281. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within:
(a) 1 month
(c) 6 months
(b) 3 months
(d) 1 year
Ans c
282. In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which one among the following?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Madras
(c) Bombay
(d) Delhi
Ans b
283. Consider the following statements:
1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State.
2. As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the State level.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans d
284. With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements:
1. An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and no appeal lies against there to before any court.
2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans a
285. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the sitting members of Lok Sabha only.
2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans d
286. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of the People?
(a) 90th
(c) 92nd
(b) 91st
(d) 93rd
Ans b
287. With reference to Union Government consider the following statements:
1. The Ministries and Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.
2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans b
288. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Which of the above provision of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by National Social Assistance Programme launched by Government of India?
(a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans b
289. Consider the following statements: The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact
1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
2. if he seeks such an advice.
3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3only
(d) 1 and 2
Ans b
289. With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigative stage and not those matters pending before any court
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature
(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person
(d) None of the statements given above is correct
Ans d
290. The "Instrument of Instructions" contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Extent of executive power of State
(d) Conduct of business of the Government of India
Ans b
291. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget to the Parliament?
(a) Department of Revenue
(b) Department of Economic Affairs
(c) Department of Financial Services
(d) Department of Expenditure
Ans b
292. With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in India, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) A State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it deems fit
(b) One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman
(c) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs
(d) A complaint in relation to any goods sold or any service provided may be filed with a District Forum by the State Government as a representative of the interests of the consumers in general
Ans c
293. Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
Ans a
294. Which one of the following authorities makes recommendation to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State ?
(a) District Planning Committees
(b) State Finance Commission
(c) Finance Ministry of that State
(d) Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State
Ans b
295. Consider the following statements: In India, a metropolitan planning committee:
1. Is constituted under the provisions of the constitution of India.
2. Prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.
3. Has the sole responsibility for implementing government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans a
296. What is the difference between "vote-on-account" and "interim budget"?
1. The provision of a "vote-on-account" is used by a regulate government, while an "interim budget" is a provision used by a caretaker government.
2. A "vote-on-account" only deals with the expenditure in government budget, while an "interim budget" includes both expenditure and receipts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans b
297. The Constitution (Seventy-third amendment) act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?
(1) Constitution of District Planning Committees
(2) State Election Commissions to conduct all Panchayat elections
(3) Establishment of State Finance Commission
State the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans b
298. Consider the following:
(1) Right to education
(2) Right to equal access to public service
(3) Right to food
Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under "Universal Declaration of Human Rights"?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans d
299. In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to?
1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.
3. It can derive benefits from the Prime minister's 15-point programme,
Which of the statements give above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans c
300. India is home to lakhs of person with disabilities, what are the benefits available to them under the law?
(1) Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government- run schools
(2) Preferential allotment of land for setting up business
(3) Ramps in public buildings
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans d
301. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the consolidated fund of India must come from
(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
Ans b
302. All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conducts of Government business are credited to the
(a) Contingency fund of India
(b) Public account
(c) Consolidated fund of India
(d) Deposits and advances fund
Ans c
303. When the annual budget is not passed by the lok sabha?
(a) The budget is modified and presented again
(b) The budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
(c) The union finance minister is asked to resign
(d) The prime minister submits the resignation of council of ministers
Ans d
304. Under the constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?
(a) To vote in public elections
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To safeguard public property
(d) To abide the Constitution and respect its ideals
Ans a
305. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
(b) It facilities the proper distribution of finances among the public section undertakings
(c) It ensures transparency in financial administration
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in his context
Ans d
306. In India other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose what is the importance of the office of the CAG?
1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/ financial emergency
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with audit and accounting of govt. companies. CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1. 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans; (c)
307. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment
(a) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months
(b) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
(c) must be a member of one of the Houses of the parliament
(d) must be a member of the Lok Sabha
Ans; (a)
308. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans; (c)
309. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for the Scheduled Castes
Select the correct answer the using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans; (c)
310. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the parliament during the passage of
1. Ordinary legislation
2. Money bill
3. Constitution Amendment bill.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans; (a)
311. How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?
390. Consider the following statements:
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 3 only
Ans. b
391. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate A lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. b
392. Consider the following statements:
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
393. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ans. b
394. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans. b
395. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements?
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. b
396. Consider the following statements:
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans d
397. With reference to the writs 1 in India, consider the following statements:
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c
398. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Ans . a
399. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it ?
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.
Ans. a
400. Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates
(a) the Right to Equality
(b) the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) the Right to Freedom
(d) the Concept of Welfare
Ans. b