Polity 1 to 200 Qts & Ans
1. The members of Constituent Assembly were
(a) Elected by the provincial assemblies
(b) Elected directly by the people
(c) Nominated by the government
(d) Only representatives of princely states
Ans a
2. What is the power of Rajya Sabha regarding Money Bill?
(a) It can amend it
(b) It can reject it
(c) it can withhold the bill for 14 days to make recommendations
(d) It has no power regarding Money Bill
Ans c
3. The Constitution 44th Amendment (renumbered as 43rd Amendment)
(a) Ensures the right to property
(b) Ensures the press freedom
(c) Limits the powers of the Government to proclaim internal emergency
(d) Restores to the High Courts and to the Supreme Court their jurisdiction to consider the validity of any Central or State law
Ans d
4. Which of the following is contained in the Concurrent List?
(a) Forests
(b) Health
(c) Police
(d) Agriculture
Ans a
5. In a parliamentary system the executive is responsible
(a) Directly to the people
(b) To legislature
(c) To judiciary
(d) None of the above
Ans b
6. The Vice-President of India is elected by
(a) The people directly
(b) The members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(c) The members of Rajya Sabha only
(d) The members of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and State Legislatures
Ans b
7. Which language has been added recently to the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a) Urdu
(b) Sanskrit
(c) Sindhi
(d) Assamese
Ans c
8. Which of the following is not included in the list of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution?
(a) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
(b) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
(c) Secularism
(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
Ans c
9. The President of Union of India has the same constitutional authority as the
(a) British Monarch
(b) President of U.S.A
(c) President of Egypt
(d) President of U.S.S.R
Ans a
10. A candidate to become a member of Lok Sabha should not be less than
(a) 21 years
(b) 25 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years
Ans b
12. The word 'secular' denotes
(a) Keeping away from all religions
(b) Freedom of religion and worship to all citizens
(c) Belief in God
(d) Practising different religions
Ans b
13. Who is authorised to decide over a dispute regarding disqualification of a member of Parliament?
(a) Election Commissioner
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) President of India
(d) A committee set up by the Parliament
Ans c
14. Which of the following States in India has no Legislative Council?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Bihar
(c) West Bengal
(d) Maharashtra
Ans c
15. The most controversial provision in the 42nd Constitution Amendment is
(a) Supremacy of Parliament
(b) Enumeration of ten Fundamental Duties
(c) Term of Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies
(d) Primacy to the Directive Principles over the Fundamental Rights
Ans d
16. The case of dispute in the Presidential election is referred to
(a) Chief Election Commissioner
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Parliament
(d) None of these
Ans b
17. Panchayati Raj administration is primarily aimed
(a) To increase agricultural production
(b) To ensure rural development
(c) To work for the upliftment of Harijans
(d) To arouse in the people of each area intensive and continuous interest in the community development programme
Ans d
18. Panchayati Raj as introduced in 1959 operates at
(a) Samiti and block levels
(b) Block and district levels
(c) Samiti and district levels
(d) Village, block and district levels
Ans d
19. Liberty, Equality and Fraternity, this inspiration was derived from
(a) American Revolution
(b) French Revolution
(c) Russian Revolution
(d) None of the above
Ans b
20. Which of the following States has no Panchayati Raj setup?
(a) Nagaland
(b) Assam
(c) Kerala
(d) West Bengal
Ans a
21. All responsibilities regarding elections in India are entrusted to
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice
(d) Chief Election Commissioner
Ans d
22. In which case a joint session of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha is convened by the President?
(a) When a Finance Bill is to be passed by the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha with 2/3rd majority
(b) To impeach the President
(c) If after a bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House and the bill is rejected by the other House
(d) All of the above
Ans c
23. 44th Amendment of the Constitution speaks of
(a) Right to property as no longer a Fundamental Right
(b) Suspension of individual liberty during emergency
(c) Barring the courts from interfering in the disputes regarding the election of Prime Minister
(d) Giving more importance to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights
Ans a
24. The Constitution 45th Amendment Bill, passed by extended reservation of seats for Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Parliament and State Assemblies upto for
(a) 1980
(b) 1985
(c) 1990
(d) 1995
Ans c
25. Finance Commission is appointed after every
(a) 2 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 7 years
(d) 10 years
Ans b
26. Council of Ministers of the Union of India is responsible to the
(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Chief Justice
Ans a
27. A candidate to become a member of Lok Sabha should not be less than
(a) 21 years
(b) 25 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years
Ans b
28. The word "secular" denotes
(a) Keeping away from all religions
(b) Belief in one God
(c) Freedom of religion and worship to all citizens
(d) Practising different religions
Ans c
29. What is the maximum period during which Parliament may not meet?
(a) Six months
(b) One year
(c) Two years
(d) Three years
Ans a
30. Parliament consists of
(a) Prime Minister and other Ministers
(b) President, Prime Minister and other Ministers
(c) President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
(d) President, Chief Justice and Lok Sabha
Ans c
31. Rajya Sabha can delay the Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha for a period not exceeding
(a) 9 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 15 days
(d) 30 days
Ans b
32. The term 'Fourth Estate' refers to
(a) A very backward State
(b) Judiciary
(c) Parliament
(d) Press
Ans d
33. The Constitution of India was actually ready in
(a) 1947
(b) 1949
(c) 1950
(d) 1952
Ans b
34. Which famous judgment restricted the authority of the Parliament to amend the Constitution so as to damage or destroy its basic or essential features or its basic structure?
(a) Golaknath case
(b) Balananda Saraswati case
(c) Minerva Mills Ltd. and others case
(d) Keshvananda Bharti case
Ans d
35. Which of the following High Courts covers more than one State/Union Territories?
(a) Delhi
(b) Allahabad
(c) Guwahati
(d) None of these
Ans c
36. Panchayati Raj System was introduced in the year
(a) 1948
(b) 1959
(c) 1951
(d) 1952
Ans b
37. The dispute regarding the election of Prime Minister and President of India can be decided by
(a) High Court
(b) Election Tribunal
(c) Chief Election Commissioner
(d) None of the above
Ans d
38. Rajya Sabha is dissolved once in
(a) 2 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 6 years
(d) It is never dissolved
Ans d
39. Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in
(a) Part I of the Constitution
(b) Part II of the Constitution
(c) Part III of the Constitution
(d) Part IV of the Constitution
Ans d
40. Which Amendment of the Constitution gave priority to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights?
(a) 36th Amendment
(b) 38th Amendment
(c) 40th Amendment
(d) 42nd Amendment
Ans d
41. What does secularism mean?
(a) State patronising all religions
(b) State having its own religion
(c)State having no other rеligion and citizen free to follow any religion of faith
(d) State having one official religion and showing respect to all other religions
Ans c
42. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right to property
(c)Right against exploitation
(d) Right to freedom of speech and expression
Ans b
43. Acts and Regulations validated by Article 31 B are specified in of the Constitution
(a) Concurrent List
(b) State List
(c)Union List
(d) Ninth Schedule
Ans d
44. On which date Constitution of India was adopted and enacted by the Constituent Assembly?
(a) 15th August, 1947
(b) 26th January, 1950
(c) 26th November, 1949
(d) 30th January, 1948
Ans c
45. President of India is elected by
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Elected representatives of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies
(d) People directly
Ans c
46. The concept of welfare state is included in the Constitution of India in
(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Fourth Schedule
(d) Directive Principles of State Policy
Ans d
47. How many members can be nominated to the Lok Sabha by the President?
(a) 2
(b) 0
(c) 5
(d)12
Ans b
48. The dispute regarding the election of President of India is to be referred to
(a) Chief Election Commissioner
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Parliament
(d) Attorney-General
Ans b
49. If President wants to resign, he should address his resignation letter to the
(a) Parliament
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Vice-President
Ans d
50. Council of Ministers of the Union of India is responsible to
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Lok Sabha
Ans d
51. When a money bill is passed by the Parliament, the President has the power to
(a) none of this
(b) Reject it
(c) Kept it with him
(d) Return it for reconsideration
Ans a
52. To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India, a provision has been made in the
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Preamble to the Constitution
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Fundamental Rights
Ans c
53. Finance Commission is appointed for
(a) Passing the money bills
(b) Approving money bills
(c) Drafting the budget
(d) Making recommendations to the President regarding the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of the taxes
Ans d
54. The 45th Amendment to the Indian Constitution relates to
(a) Minorities Commission
(b) Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(c) Extension of reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(d) None of the above
Ans c
55. Directive Principles of State Policy are included in which part of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Part IV
(b) Part III
(c) Part II
(d) Part I
Ans a
56. Panchayati Raj is mainly aimed at
(a) Rural employment
(b) Agricultural and rural industries development
(c) Political awareness among village people
(d) Giving training to villagers for fighting elections
Ans a
57. In which of the following legislatures can a non- member be the Presiding Office:?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Vidhan Sabha
(d) None of these
Ans b
59. The reorganisation of Indian States on a linguistic basis took place in
(a) 1947
(b) 1950
(c) 1956
(d) 1962
Ans c
60. The greatest hallmark of personal liberty is
(a) Mandamus
(b) Certiorari
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Habeas Corpus
Ans d
61. Which one of the following is not a piece of social legislation?
(a) The Immoral Offences and Girls Trafficking Act
(b) The Maintenance of Internal Security Act
(c) The Abolition of Untouchability (Offences) Act
(d) The Special Marriage Act
Ans b
62. The Jammu and Kashmir Resettlement Bill which has stirred up controversy deals with
(a) Reorganisation of territories between Jammu & Kashmir
(b) Allowing people of Kashmiri origin who have migrated to Pakistan to come back to Jammu & Kashmiri
(c) Introduction of new land reforms in the State
(d) Imposition of agricultural income tax in the State
Ans b
63. It is often said that the key to the minds of the makers of our Constitution lies in
(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Directive Principles of State Policy
Ans a
64. Who decides whether a Bill is a 'Money Bill' or not?
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Vice-President
Ans a
65. Which one of the following is part of Preamble of the Constitution of India?
(a) We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic..... do hereby Adopt, Enact and Give to ourselves this Constitution
(b) We, the members of the Parliament, do hereby Adopt. Enact and Give to ourselves this Constitution
(c) We, the people of Constituent Assembly, do hereby Adopt. Enact and Give to ourselves this Constitution
(d) None of the above
Ans a
66.Sarkaria Commission has been set up to study
(a) Centre-State relations
(b) Inter-State relations
(c) Financial aid to States
(d) Splitting of LIC
Ans a
67. Being a non-member who among the following can participate in the proceedings of either House of Parliament without having the voting right?
(a) Vice-President
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Comptroller & Auditor-General
(d) Attorney General
Ans d
68. The Eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution contains
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles
(c) A list of 22 languages recognised by the Constitution
(d) Number of States and Union Territories
Ans c
69. Match the following:
A. Chief Election Commissioner 1. Elected by members of Rajya Sabha
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha 2. Appointed by the President
C. Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha 3. Elected by members of Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) A - 1 B - 2 C-3
(b) A - 2 B - 3 C - 1
(c) 4 - 3 B - 2 C - 1
(d) None of these
Ans b
70. Mandal Commission report pertains to other
(a) Backward Classes
(b) Minorities
(c) Scheduled Castes
(d) Scheduled Tribes
Ans a
71. A good citizen is one who is
(a) Conscious of social obligations
(b) Not bothered about anything
(c) Educated
(d) Rich in cultural heritage
Ans a
73. Centre-State financial relations are looked after by the
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Sarkaria Commission
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) Planning Commission
Ans a
75. Panchayati Raj system was adopted to
(a) Make people aware of politics
(b) Decentralise the power of democracy
(c) Educate the peasants
(d) Urban Development
Ans b
76. Democracy exists in India. Government is run by the elected representatives of the people. For proper functioning of this system
(a) One should cast vote in elections
(b) One must be prompt in paying taxes
(c) One must be good to himself and to the society
(d) None of these
Ans a
78. Which is correct?
(a) Lok Sabha cannot be dissolved before 5 years
(b) Rajya Sabha lasts only for 6 years
(c) Lok Sabha can be dissolved before 5 years
(d) Life of Lok Sabha can be extended indefinitely
Ans c
79. "The original structure of the Indian Constitution cannot be changed". In which of the following cases, Supreme Court of India gave this verdict?
(a) The Golak Nath case
(b) The Minerva Mills case
(c) The Kesavananda Bharati case
(d) None of the above
Ans c
81. The President of India is elected indirectly by the electoral college consisting of the elected members of the
(a) Lok Sabha only
(b) Rajya Sabha only
(c) Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only
(d) Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of the States
Ans d
82. In which of the following States in India, the number of electorate is the highest?
(a) Bihar
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Rajasthan
Ans b
83. After retirement, a High Court Judge
(a) Can plead in the same High Court
(b) Cannot plead in the same High Court
(c) Can plead in the Supreme Court
(d) Can plead in any of the High Courts
Ans b
84. The Panchayati Raj was first introduced in the States of
(a) Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Gujarat
(d) Haryana
Ans a
85. In a Parliamentary System of Government
(a) The parliament is responsible to the executive
(b) The parliament is responsible to the judiciary
(c) The executive is responsible to the parliament
(d) The judiciary is responsible to the parliament
Ans c
86. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha can be removed by a resolution
(a) Passed by a two-thirds majority of its total members at that time
(b) Passed by a simple majority of its total members at that time
(c) Moved by Rajya Sabha but passed by Lok Sabha
(d) None of the above
Ans d
87. The Seventh Schedule of the Indian contains
(a) States and Union Territories
(b) Salaries of the President, Governors of States Judges of Supreme Court, etc.
(c) Union List, State List and Concurrent List
(d) Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha
Ans c
88 . The National Anthem was written by
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Bankim Chandra Chatterji
(c) Mohammed Iqbal
(d) None of the above
Ans a
87. What is the minimum percentage of the strength of opposition required in a State legislature for the appointment of an opposition leader?
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 40%
(d) None of the above
Ans d
89. The most irritating factor in the Centre-State relationship is the
(a) River water dispute
(b) Interference of the Centre in the functions allotted to them by the Constitution
(c) Allocation of finances
(d) None of the above
Ans b
90. Mandamus means
(a) A writ issued by a superior court command that a specified thing be done
(b) A legal term for a prisoner's right to appear in person and be tried in court
(c) A written public declaration of the intentions. opinions or motives of a sovereign or of a leader. party or body
(d) The principle of hybridisation, discovered by Gregor Mendel which led to the improved breeds of plant and animal life
Ans a
91. The main function of the National Development Council is
(a) To promote national integration
(b) To develop villages
(c) To review the working of the National Plan from time to time
(d) None of the above
Ans c
94. The Directive Principles of State Policy have been given precedence over Fundamental Rights in the ..... Constitutional Amendment
(a) 41st
(b) 42nd
(c) 43rd
(d) 45th
Ans b
95. Which of the following States are not covered by the Panchayati Raj?
(a) Tripura and Sikkim
(b) Manipur and Assam
(c) Meghalaya and Nagaland
(d) Assam and West Bengal
Ans c
96. Which of the following is correct about the Chief Election Commissioner?
He holds the office till he attains the age of
(a) 62 years
(b) 65 years
(c) 62 years or completes 3 years of service, whichever is earlier
(d) 65 years of age or completes 5 years of service, whichever is earlier
Ans b
97. Constitution does not recognise the caste system because
(a) India is secular
(b) It leads to inequality which is against the Constitution
(c) It leads to untouchability
(d) All of the above
Ans d
98. Which of the following is a 'cognizable offence'?
(a) First offence committed by any person
(b) Offence committed by a minor
(c) Offence other than murder
(d) Offence which can be dealt with by the court
Ans d
100. A Parliamentary bill passed by the Lok Sabha is sent to the President for assent. The President sends it back to Lok Sabha for reconsideration. If the Lok Sabha again sends it back to the President without making any changes, the President
(a) Must give his assent to it
(b) Can again send the bill for reconsideration
(c) Can take help of the Supreme Court
(d) Can arrange referendum
Ans a
101. The Institute of Ombudsman was first established in
(a) Norway
(b) Sweden
(c) Finland
(d) Denmark
Ans b
102. India is a federal state because of
(a) Dual Citizenship prevalent here
(b) Dual judiciary
(c) Share of power between the Centre and the States
(d) Written Constitution
Ans c
103. Governor of which State has been entrusted with the special powers for the administration of tribal areas?
(a) Bihar
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans c
104. Representation of any State in Rajya Sabha, is according to
(a) Population of the State
(b) Area of the State
(c) Fixed number of candidates for each State
(d) Number of representation in Lok Sabha from that State
Ans a
105. The Speaker of the lower house of a State can step down by submitting his resignation to the
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Governor
(c) Deputy Speaker of the House
(d) President
Ans c
106. India has Parliamentary democracy system because
(a) Members of the Lok Sabha are elected by the public
(b) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Legislature
(c) Of distribution of power between the Centre and the States
(d) Of a single constitutional framework
Ans b
107. Judges of a High Court are appointed by the President with the consent of the
(a) Governor
(b) Governor, the Chief justice of India and the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned
(c) Governor and the preceding Chief Justice of the High court
(d) None of these
Ans b
108. Parliament can legislate matters in the State List
(a) By wish of the President
(b) If Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by 2/3rd majority
(c) Under any circumstances
(d) By asking the legislature of the State concerned
Ans b
109. The maximum gap between two sessions of the Parliament can be of
(a) Six months
(b) Three months
(c) Nine months
(d) Twelve months
Ans a
110. First non-Congress government to come in power in any Indian State is
(a) DMK in Tamil Nadu
(b) Communist Party of India in Kerala
(c) CPI (M) in West Bengal
(d) None of the above
Ans b
111. 'Economic Justice', as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution, has been provided in the
(a) Preamble and Fundamental Rights
(b) Preamble and Directive Principles
(c) Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
(d) Preamble, Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
Ans b
112. A political party is recognised as a national party
(a) When it contests elections in all the States of the country.
(b) When it secures at least five per cent of the total votes cast in a national election.
(c) If it captures power at least in three States.
(d) If it is recognised as a political party in four or more States
Ans d
113. The allocation of seats for each State in the present Lok Sabha is based on the
(a) 1951 census
(b) 1961 census
(c) 1971 census
(d) 1981 census
Ans c
114. Who among the following have a right to vote in the Vice-Presidential election but not in the Presidential election?
(a) Ministers who are not members of either House of the Parliament
(b) Elected members of the Upper Houses of the States
(c) Nominated members of the Parliament
(d) Members of the Parliament who abstain from all meetings of the House for a period of sixty days without permission of the House
Ans c
115. Who among the following has the right to speak and otherwise take part in the proceedings of either House of the Parliament and to be a member of any Parliamentary Committee in India but is not entitled to vote?
(a) The Chief Election Commissioner
(b) The Comptroller and Auditor General
(c) The Chairman of the Finance Commission
(d) The Attorney General
Ans d
116. Which of the following is/are true of bonded labour?
1. It is forced employment in consideration of an advance or interest payment
2. It is employment arising out of any customary or social or hereditary obligation or by reason of birth in any caste or community involved in pledging labour
3. It is for any economic consideration involving loss of freedom of contract leading to forced employment
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
Ans a
117. Assertion (A): The Indian Constitution closely follows the British Parliamentary model.
Reason (R): In India the Upper House of the Parliament has judicial powers.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans c
118. In a political party of 36 members, the minimum number of members needed to split for disqualifying the original political party as per Anti- Defection Law should be
(a) 9
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 24
Ans b
119. In the estimation of expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, the Parliament has
(a) No power to discuss.
(b) Full power to discuss.
(c) Full power to discuss during financial emergency.
(d) None of the above
Ans b
120. If the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly decides to resign, he should submit his resignation to the
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Governor
(c) Judge of the High Court
(d) Deputy Speaker
Ans d
121. Absolute majority means per cent of votes.
(a) 50
(c) 75
(b) 66
(d) 80
Ans a
122. Cognizable offence refers to an offence where
(a) Arrests can be made without warrant.
(b) Arrests can be made with warrant.
(c) It is under the jurisdiction of a court.
(d) Police can register a case without formal complaint
Ans d
123. No money bill can be introduced in the legislative assembly without the recommendations of the
(a) Speaker
(b) Governor
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Finance Minister
Ans b
124. The 42nd Amendment to the Indian Constitution is notable because it gives
(a) Primacy to Fundamental Rights over Directive Principles
(b) Primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights
(c) Special treatment to Jammu & Kashmir
(d) Special treatment to Sikkim
Ans b
125. Which among the following is not a part of electoral reforms?
(a) Registration of political parties
(b) Disqualifying the offenders
(c) Installation of electronic voting machines
(d) Appointment of the Election Commissioner
Ans d
126. Assertion (A): Finance Commission aims to safeguard the fiscal autonomy of the States.
Reason (R): Finance Commission is constituted every fifth year.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans a
127. Consider the following statements regarding "booth capturing" in an election:
1. It has been defined in the Constitution of India after the 61st Amendment.
2. It includes the seizure of and taking possession of a polling booth to prevent the orderly conduct of elections.
3. It is also committed when any elector is threatened and prevented from going to the polling station to cast his vote.
4. It has been declared a cognizable offence punishable by imprisonment.
Of these statements:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans b
128. Parliament or a State Legislature can declare a seat vacant if a member abstains himself without permission from the sessions for atleast
(a) 30 days
(c) 90 days
(b) 60 days
(d) 120 days
Ans b
129. Assertion (A): Panchayati Raj institutions were set upto decentralise planning to village level.
Reason (R): Village panchayats are in a better position to have a proper appreciation of their developmental needs.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans a
130. Consider the following statements regarding a No- confidence Motion in the Parliament:
(1) There is no mention of a No-confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
(2) A period of six months must elapse between the introduction of one No-confidence Motion and the other
(3) At least 100 members must support a Motion of No-confidence before it is introduced in the House.
(4) A motion of No-confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only
Of these statements:
(a)2 and 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
Ans d
131. Consider the following activities indulged in by a candidate during an election campaign:
1. Giving gifts to voters to induce them to vote
2. Appealing for votes on the grounds of caste or religion
3. False character assassination of other candidates
4. Propagation and glorification of sati
Which of these constitute the corrupt practices?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
Ans c
132. The value of a vote of a member of the Parliament for the election of the President of India is determined by dividing the
(a) Nation's population as per the latest census by the number of Lok Sabha members
(b) Population as per the latest census by the total strength of the two Houses of the Parliament
(c) The total value of votes of the members of all the State Legislative Assemblies by the elected members of the two Houses of the Parliament
(d) Particular State's population as per the latest census by the number of members of Parliament elected from that State
Ans c
133. Assertion (A): Equality before the law is not applicable to the President of India
Reason (R): The President of India enjoys special powers and privileges under the Constitution
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans a
134. Holding of elections for the Panchayats is decided by
(a) The District Magistrate
(b) Constitutional mandate
(c) The State Government
(d) The Election Commission of state
Ans d
135. The right to Freedom of Speech in India may be restricted, if the freedom is used to
(a) Incite people to violence
(b) Propagate nationalisation of the private sector
(c) Level charges of corruption against those in power
(d) Spread superstition
Ans a
136. Of the following, with which does Article 78 of the Constitution deal with?
1. Emergency powers of the President
2. The Prime Minister's duty regarding keeping the President informed about the government's decisions, policies and actions
3. The President's power to send advisory messages to the Parliament
4. The President's power to get information from the Council of Ministers
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 2 only
Ans c
137. Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha
(b) Jurisdiction regarding election disputes rests with the Chief Election Commissioner
(c) The Speaker continues in his post even after the state council is dissolved till a new speaker is elected by the succeeding state council
(d) According to the Indian Constitution Parliament consists of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha only
Ans c
138. In India political parties are given recognition by
(a) President
(b) Law Commission
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Election Commission
Ans d
139. Of the various sources of income to the Gram Panchayats, one source is
(a) Income tax
(b) Sales tax
(c) Professional tax
(d) Levy duties
Ans d
140. The appointment of the Judges of Supreme Court is done by
(a) The Prime Minister on the advice of the Union Cabinet
(b) The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
(c) The Prime Minister in consultation with the Chief Justic
(d) The President in consultation with the colleguim of india
Ans d
141. Which one of the following can be prorogued but cannot be dissolved?
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) State Council
(c) Municipal Corporation
(d) Governing Council in a Union Territory
Ans a
142. To elect the President of India which one of the following election procedures is used?
(a) System of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote
(b) Proportional representation through list system
(c) Collective voting system
(d) Secondary voting system
Ans a
143. The Panchayati Raj was first introduced in the States of Rajasthan and
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Gujarat
(d) Orissa
Ans a
144. Several states in the North-Eastern part of India were carved out by separating them from Assam. Which one of the following pairs is not among them?
(a) Manipur and Meghalaya
(b) Mizoram and Tripura
(c) Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland
(d) Manipur and Tripura
Ans d
145. Which one of the following statements regarding the election of the President of India-is correct?
(a) A candidate securing the majority of votes is not automatically elected
(b) The Supreme Court has no jurisdiction in any doubt or dispute arising in connection with the election of the President
(c) The Presidential election cannot take place when one or more State Assemblies stand dissolved because all the State Assemblies form part of the electoral college
(d) The total value of the votes allotted to both Houses of Parliament is much more than the total value of the votes of all the States taken together
Ans a
146. Which of the following are Financial Committees of Parliament in India?
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans d
147. Which one of the following is not in the State List under the Constitution of India?
(a) Fisheries
(b) Agriculture
(c) Insurance
(d) Betting and Gambling
Ans c
148. Which one of the following correctly reflects the position of the Upper House of the State legislature as compared to the position of the Upper House of the Parliament?
(a) While one-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire every second year, one-fourth of the members of the Legislative Council retire every eighteen months
(b) There is no provision for a joint sitting of the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council in the States for resolving deadlocks while there is such a provision in the case of the two Houses of Parliament
(c) While no Bill other than a Money Bill can originate in the State Legislative Council, no Bill can originate in the Rajya Sabha
(d) While Rajya Sabha has twelve nominated members, the State Legislative Council has none
Ans b
149. The Constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian Federation from the Constitution of
(a) USA
(b) Canada
(c) Ireland
(d) UK
Ans b
150. Which of the following statements regarding judiciary in India are correct?
1. Supreme Court of India is free from the control and influence of legislature and executive
2. Subordinate courts are at the head of the judicial hierarchy of the state.
3. The Chief Justice and other judges of the High Court are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
4. A High Court can withdraw a case from a subordinate court and can deal with the case itself if it is satisfied that the case involves a substantial point of constitutional law
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans c
151. Which of the following are the circumstances under which an elected member of Parliament may be disqualified on the ground of defection?
1. If he voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party
2. If he votes or abstains from voting contrary to any direction issued by his political party without prior permission of the political party
3. If he speaks against the political party
4. If he joins a political party other than the party on whose ticket he contested and got elected
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans b
152. The abolition of the I.A.S. and the I.P.S. has been recommended by the
(a) Dhebar Commission
(b) Kalekar Commission
(c) Kher Commission
(d) Rajamannar Commission
Ans d
153. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Neither the Finance Commission nor the Planning Commission is a constitutional body
(b) The scope of the Finance Commission is limited to a review of the revenue segment of the budget while the Planning Commission takes an overall review embracing both capital and revenue requirements of the states
(c) No one can be a member of both the Finance Commission and Planning Commission at the same time
(d) There is no overlapping of work and responsibility of the Finance Commission and those of the Planning Commission
Ans b
154. The Chief Minister of a State in India is NOT eligible to vote in the Presidential election if
(a) he himself is a candidate
(b) he is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of the State legislature
(c) he is a member of the Upper House of the State legislature
(d) he is a caretaker Chief Minister
Ans c
155. The Swaran Singh Committee considered the Question of
(a) more autonomy to Punjab on the model of Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) the suitability of the Presidential form of government for India.
(c) the precedence of the Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights.
(d) Administrative reforms
Ans c
156. Which one of the following is a feature common to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation?
(a) A single citizenship
(b) Three lists in the Constitution
(c) Dual judiciary
(d) A federal Supreme Court to interpret the constitution
Ans d
157. Which one of the following is in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India?
(a) Population control and family planning
(b) Public health and sanitation
(c) Capitation taxes
(d) Treasure trove
Ans a
158. Among the four political parties listed below, which one was the last to be formed?
(a) The Conservative Party in Britain
(b) The Democratic Party in USA
(c) The Republican Party in USA
(d) The Indian National Congress
Ans d
159. Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Courts and the Supreme Court?
(a) Disputes between the Centre and the States
(b) Disputes between the States inters
(c) Protection of the Fundamental Rights
(d) Protection against the violation of the Constitution
Ans c
160. Which one of the following statements regarding the office of the Speaker is correct?
(a) He holds office during the pleasure of the President
(b) He need not be a member of the House at the time of his election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his election
(c) He loses his office if the House is dissolved before the end of its normal tenure
(d) If he intends to resign, the letter of his resignation is to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker
Ans d
161. Which one of the following is INCORRECT in respect of Parliamentary Control over the Budget?
(a) Parliament has no say in the preparation of the budget
(b) Parliament has the power to increase expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund
(c) Parliament has no power to impose a tax without the President's recommendation
(d) Parliament has no power to increase a tax without the President's recommendation
Ans a
162. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly are true
1. It was not based on adult franchisee
2. It resulted from direct elections.
3. It was a multi-party body.
4. It worked through several committees.
Select the correct answer from the codes given bellow
(a) 1and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans c
163. Who among the following are appointed by the President of India?
1. The Chairman, Finance Commission
2. The Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
3. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans c
164. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its
(a) advisory jurisdiction
(b) appellate jurisdiction
(c) original jurisdiction
(d) constitutional jurisdiction
Ans c
165. When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to
(a) the writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court
(b) special control exercised by the Chief Justice of India
(c) discretionary powers of the Governor of the state
(d) special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard
Ans a
166. According to the Constitution of India, the term 'district judge' shall not include
(a) chief presidency magistrate
(b) sessions judge
(c) tribunal judge
(d) chief judge of a small cause court
Ans c
167. Which one of the following is part of the electoral college for the election of the President of India but does not form part of the forum for his impeachment?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) State Legislative Councils
(d) State Legislative Assemblies
Ans d
168. What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj setup?
(a) Single-tier structure of local self-government at the village level
(b) Two-tier system of local self-government at the village and block levels
(c) Three-tier structure of local self-government, at the village, block and district levels
(d) Four-tier system of local self-government at the village, block, district and state levels
Ans c
169. Consider the following statements: No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem since
1. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of speech and expression.
2. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of conscience and practise and propagation of religion.
3. there is no legal provision obliging any one to sing the National Anthem.
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(d) None is correct
Ans c
170. Which one of the following statements is correct? The Prime Minister of India
(a) is free to choose his ministers only from among those who are members of either House of the Parliament
(b) can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counselling by the President of India in this regard
(c) has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as ministers in his cabinet
(d) has only limited powers in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the discretionary power vested with the President of India
Ans c
171. B.R. Ambedkar was elected to the Constituent Assembly from
(a) West Bengal
(b) the Bombay Presidency
(c) the then Madhya Bharat
(d) Punjab
Ans a
172. Assertion (A): The word 'minority' is not defined in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R): The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans a
173. Which one of the following was NOT proposed by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment in the area of Panchayati Raj?
(a) 33 per cent seats in all elected rural local bodies will be reserved for women candidates at all levels
(b) The States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati Raj Institutions
(c) The Panchayati Raj elected functionaries will be disqualified to hold their offices if they have more than two children
(d) The elections will be held in six months time if Panchayati Raj bodies are superceded or dissolved by the State government
Ans a
174. State Funding of elections takes place in
(a) USA and Canada
(b) Britain and Switzerland
(c) France and Italy
(d) Germany and Austria
Ans d
175. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in
(a) The United Kingdom
(b) Australia
(c) The United States
(d) Canada
Ans c
176. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament
(a) he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
(b) he will not be able to speak on the Budget in the Lower House
(c) he can make statements only on the Upper House
(d) he has to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn-in as the Prime Minister
Ans a
177. Assertion (A): The reservation of thirty-three per cent of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislatures does not require Constitutional amendment.
Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three per cent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional amendment.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and Rare true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans d
178. Which one of the following are/is stated Constitution of India?
1. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament.
2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given
below:
Codes:
(a) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 alone
(d) 2 alone
Ans b
179. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List 1 List 2
(Functionaries) (Oaths and affirmations)
A. President of India 1. Secrecy of Information
B. Judges of Supreme Court duties 2. Faithful discharge of the
duty of his office
the Constitution of India
D. Minister for the Union 4. Upholding the Constitution & the law
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2
Ans c
180. In the following quotation: "WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity, and to promote among them all; FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; In our Constituent Assembly this 'X' do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution."
'X' stands for
(a) twenty-sixth day of January, 1950
(b) twenty-sixth day of November, 1949
(c) twenty-sixth day of January, 1949
(d) None of the above
Ans b
181. The Dinesh Goswami Committee recommended
(a) the constitution of state-level election commissions
(b) List System of election to the Lok Sabha
(c) governmental funding of parliamentary elections
(d) a ban on the candidature of independent candidates in the parliamentary elections
Ans c
182. Assertion (A): Willful disobedience or non- compliance of Court Orders and use of derogatory language about judicial behaviour amounts to Contempt of Court.
Reason (R): Judicial activism cannot be practised without arming the judiciary with punitive powers to punish contemptuous behaviour.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and Rare true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans b
183. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding Anti-Defection Act?
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
Ans d
184. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has
(a) both a real and a nominal executive
(b) a system of collective responsibility
(c) bicameral legislature
(d) the system of judicial review
Ans d
185. Panchayati Raj was first introduced in India in
October, 1959 in
(a) Rajasthan (c) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu (d) Karnataka
Ans a
186. The Constitution of India recognises
(a) only religious minorities
(b) only linguistic minorities
(c) religious and linguistic minorities
(d) religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities
Ans c
187. Consider the following statements: An amendment of the Constitution of India can be initiated by the
(1) Lok Sabha
(2) Rajya Sabha
(3) State Legislatures
(4) President
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 alone
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Ans d
188. A British citizen staying in India cannot claim Right to
(a) Freedom of trade and profession
(b) Equality before the Law
(c) Protection of life and personal liberty
(d) Freedom of religion
Ans a
189. Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission of India:
(1) Its Chairman must be a retired Chief Justice of India.
(2) It has formations in each state as State Human Rights Commission.
(3) Its powers are only recommendatory in nature.
(4) It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a member of the Commission.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
Ans d
190. "....instil into the vast millions of workers, men and women, who actually do the job, a sense of partnership and of cooperative performance...." The above passage relates to
(a) Planned Development
(b) Community Development
(c) Panchayati Raj System
(d) Integrated Development Programme
Ans b
191. The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as
(a) decorum
(c) interpellation
(b) crossing the floor
(d) yielding the floor
Ans d
192. Consider the following statements about the Attorney-General of India:
1. He is appointed by the President of India.
2. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a Judge of the Supreme Court.
3. He must be a member of either House of Parliament.
4. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans a
193. Consider the following functionaries:
1. Cabinet Secretary
2. Chief Election Commissioner
3. Union Cabinet Ministers
4. Chief Justice of India
Their correct sequence, in the Order of Precedence is
(a) 3, 4, 2, 1
(b) 4, 3, 1, 2
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2
Ans c
194. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to
(a) distribute revenue between the Centre and the States
(b) prepare the Annual Budget
(c) advise the President on financial matters
(d) allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and State Governments
Ans a
195. The State which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha is
(a) Bihar
(b) Gujarat
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans d
196. A college student desires to get elected to the Municipal Council of his city. The validity of his nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that
(a) he obtains permission from the Principal of his college
(b) he is a member of a political party
(c) his name figures in the Voters' List
(d) he files a declaration owing allegiance to the Constitution of India
Ans c
197. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing International treaties
(a) with the consent of all the States
(b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) without the consent of any State
Ans d
198. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?
(a) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
(c) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by Lok Sabha and send it for consideration within 14 days
(d) The President cannot return a Money Bill to Lok Sabha for reconsideration
Ans a
199. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 refers to the
(a) generation of gainful employment for the unemployed and the underemployed men and women in rural area
(b) generation of employment for the able bodied adults who are in need and desirous of work during the lean agricultural season
(c) laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country
(d) guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person, equality before law and equal protection
without discrimination
Ans c
200. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Goa attained full statehood in 1987
(b) Diu is an island in the Gulf of Khambhat
(c) Daman and Diu were separated from Goa by the 56th Amendment of the Constitution of India
(d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under French colonial rule till 1954
Ans d